TEST QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
2026-2027 {5 VERSIONS}
Fall Update | 100% Correct | Latest Version
1. A nurse is preparing to perform hand hygiene. Which situation requires
handwashing with soap and water rather than an alcohol-based hand rub?
A. Before touching a client's intact skin
B. After removing gloves when hands are not visibly soiled
C. After caring for a client with Clostridioides difficile infection
D. Before administering oral medications
Correct Answer: C. After caring for a client with Clostridioides difficile infection.
Rationale: Alcohol-based hand rubs are not effective against C. difficile spores. Soap and
water with friction must be used because the mechanical action helps remove spores. For
routine hand hygiene when hands are not visibly soiled, alcohol-based rubs are
appropriate .
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has active pulmonary tuberculosis. Which type
of isolation precautions should the nurse implement?
A. Contact precautions
B. Droplet precautions
C. Airborne precautions
D. Standard precautions
Correct Answer: C. Airborne precautions.
,Rationale: Pulmonary tuberculosis is transmitted via airborne particles that remain
suspended in the air. Airborne precautions require a negative pressure room and an N95
respirator for staff. Contact and droplet precautions are not sufficient for TB .
3. A nurse is witnessing a client sign an informed consent form for surgery. Which
of the following describes what the nurse is affirming by this action?
A. The client fully understands the provider's explanation of the procedure
B. The client has been informed about the risks and benefits of the procedure
C. The nurse witnessed the provider's explanation of the procedure
D. The signature on the preoperative consent form is the client's
Correct Answer: D. The signature on the preoperative consent form is the client's.
Rationale: The nurse's role in informed consent is to witness the client's signature, ensure
the client is signing voluntarily, and confirm that the consent was obtained by the provider.
It is the provider's responsibility to explain the procedure, risks, benefits, and alternatives .
4. A client is placed in restraints. How often must the nurse assess the client?
A. Every 30 minutes
B. Every 1 hour
C. Every 2 hours
D. Every 4 hours
Correct Answer: C. Every 2 hours.
Rationale: ATI and CMS require restraint assessment every 2 hours for adults (every 1 hour
for children, every 30 minutes for infants). Assessments include circulation, skin integrity,
nutrition, hydration, and elimination needs .
5. Which client has the highest risk for falls?
,A. A 45-year-old client with a fractured wrist
B. A 70-year-old client taking multiple antihypertensive medications
C. A 30-year-old client with pneumonia
D. A 55-year-old client with a urinary catheter
Correct Answer: B. A 70-year-old client taking multiple antihypertensive
medications.
Rationale: Older adults have decreased muscle strength, gait changes, and slower reflexes.
Antihypertensives can cause orthostatic hypotension. Combined, these physical changes
and medications create a very high risk for falls .
6. A nurse is teaching unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) about fall prevention.
Which instruction is most important?
A. "Keep all four side rails up at all times for confused clients."
B. "Ensure the client's call light is within reach at all times."
C. "Place the bed in the highest position for easy access."
D. "Keep the room door closed to minimize noise."
*Correct Answer: B. "Ensure the client's call light is within reach at all times." *
Rationale: Ensuring the call light is within reach empowers clients to call for assistance
rather than attempting to get up unassisted. Keeping all side rails up can increase injury
risk if clients climb over them; beds should be in the lowest position .
7. A nurse is preparing a sterile field for a procedure. During the set-up, the nurse
touches the 1-inch border of the sterile field. Which action should the nurse take?
A. Continue the procedure since only the edge was touched
B. Discard all supplies and start over with a new sterile field
C. Cover the contaminated area with a new sterile drape
D. Cleanse the contaminated area with an alcohol wipe
Correct Answer: B. Discard all supplies and start over with a new sterile field.
, Rationale: Once a sterile field is contaminated, sterility cannot be restored by covering or
cleaning. The entire field must be discarded and a new one established. The 1-inch border
of the sterile field is considered unsterile .
8. A nurse is discussing fire safety with newly hired nurses. Which of the following
actions is the priority if a fire occurs in the health care facility?
A. Close the fire doors on the unit
B. Use a fire extinguisher on the fire
C. Pull the nearest fire alarm
D. Evacuate clients from the unit
Correct Answer: D. Evacuate clients from the unit.
Rationale: The priority during a fire is to evacuate clients from the immediate danger zone.
The RACE acronym guides fire response: Rescue (evacuate clients), Alarm (pull alarm),
Contain (close doors), Extinguish (use extinguisher if safe) .
9. A nurse is collecting a specimen for culture from a client's infected wound.
Which of the following actions should the nurse perform?
A. Wear sterile gloves when collecting the specimen
B. Cleanse the wound with 0.9% sodium chloride irrigation
C. Collect the specimen from the wound dressing
D. Collect the specimen after applying antimicrobial ointment
Correct Answer: B. Cleanse the wound with 0.9% sodium chloride irrigation.
Rationale: The wound should be cleansed with normal saline to remove surface
contaminants before collecting the specimen. The specimen should be collected from the
wound bed, not the dressing, and before antimicrobial agents are applied. Clean (not
sterile) gloves are appropriate .