RCAL NAB ADMINISTRATOR EXAM: FULL
30-QUESTION OSHA & SAFETY TEST
BANK 1OO% CORRECT!
Bloodborne Pathogens (BBP) & Exposure Control (Q1–Q8)
Q1. An employee reports an accidental needlestick. What is the facility’s
immediate obligation?
● A) Terminate the employee for failing to follow protocols.
● B) Provide a confidential medical evaluation and follow-up at no cost to the
employee.
● C) Require the employee to use personal health insurance.
● D) Wait for the next safety committee meeting to report it.
● Answer: B | Rationale: OSHA requires employers to pay for post-exposure
evaluation and follow-up.
Q2. Who must be included in the Exposure Control Plan (ECP)?
● A) Only nurses.
● B) Any employee with reasonable anticipation of occupational exposure.
● C) Only the housekeeping department.
● D) Only direct-care staff.
● Answer: B | Rationale: Risk is based on tasks, not titles.
Q3. How often must the ECP be reviewed and updated?
● A) Every 5 years.
● B) Every year (or whenever new tasks/jobs introduce exposure).
● C) Only after a state survey.
● D) Never, if no incidents occur.
● Answer: B | Rationale: Annual review is required to account for technological
and procedural changes.
Q4. Which of the following is an example of an Engineering Control?
● A) Handwashing.
● B) Wearing gloves.
, ● C) A puncture-resistant sharps container.
● D) Staff training.
● Answer: C | Rationale: Engineering controls isolate the hazard from the worker.
Q5. When should an employee receive BBP training?
● A) At the time of initial hire and at least annually thereafter.
● B) Only after an exposure occurs.
● C) Every 3 years.
● D) Only if the employee requests it.
● Answer: A | Rationale: Training must be initial and recurring annually.
Q6. What is the primary purpose of an ECP?
● A) To reduce corporate liability insurance.
● B) To eliminate or minimize employee occupational exposure to blood/OPIM.
● C) To track employee attendance.
● D) To satisfy the local fire department.
● Answer: B | Rationale: The ECP is the master plan for workplace safety
regarding biological hazards.
Q7. If a resident's blood splashes on a staff member's intact skin, does this
require an incident report?
● A) No, only if skin is broken.
● B) Yes, it should be documented according to facility policy.
● C) Only if the resident is known to have HIV.
● D) Only if the employee demands it.
● Answer: B | Rationale: Proper documentation is necessary to ensure safety and
identify patterns.
Q8. Hepatitis B vaccination must be offered to all employees with occupational
exposure within how many days of assignment?
● A) 5 days.
● B) 10 working days.
● C) 30 days.
● D) 60 days.
● Answer: B | Rationale: OSHA mandates this 10-day window.
PPE & Engineering Controls (Q9–Q15)
Q9. Which of the following is a Work Practice Control?
30-QUESTION OSHA & SAFETY TEST
BANK 1OO% CORRECT!
Bloodborne Pathogens (BBP) & Exposure Control (Q1–Q8)
Q1. An employee reports an accidental needlestick. What is the facility’s
immediate obligation?
● A) Terminate the employee for failing to follow protocols.
● B) Provide a confidential medical evaluation and follow-up at no cost to the
employee.
● C) Require the employee to use personal health insurance.
● D) Wait for the next safety committee meeting to report it.
● Answer: B | Rationale: OSHA requires employers to pay for post-exposure
evaluation and follow-up.
Q2. Who must be included in the Exposure Control Plan (ECP)?
● A) Only nurses.
● B) Any employee with reasonable anticipation of occupational exposure.
● C) Only the housekeeping department.
● D) Only direct-care staff.
● Answer: B | Rationale: Risk is based on tasks, not titles.
Q3. How often must the ECP be reviewed and updated?
● A) Every 5 years.
● B) Every year (or whenever new tasks/jobs introduce exposure).
● C) Only after a state survey.
● D) Never, if no incidents occur.
● Answer: B | Rationale: Annual review is required to account for technological
and procedural changes.
Q4. Which of the following is an example of an Engineering Control?
● A) Handwashing.
● B) Wearing gloves.
, ● C) A puncture-resistant sharps container.
● D) Staff training.
● Answer: C | Rationale: Engineering controls isolate the hazard from the worker.
Q5. When should an employee receive BBP training?
● A) At the time of initial hire and at least annually thereafter.
● B) Only after an exposure occurs.
● C) Every 3 years.
● D) Only if the employee requests it.
● Answer: A | Rationale: Training must be initial and recurring annually.
Q6. What is the primary purpose of an ECP?
● A) To reduce corporate liability insurance.
● B) To eliminate or minimize employee occupational exposure to blood/OPIM.
● C) To track employee attendance.
● D) To satisfy the local fire department.
● Answer: B | Rationale: The ECP is the master plan for workplace safety
regarding biological hazards.
Q7. If a resident's blood splashes on a staff member's intact skin, does this
require an incident report?
● A) No, only if skin is broken.
● B) Yes, it should be documented according to facility policy.
● C) Only if the resident is known to have HIV.
● D) Only if the employee demands it.
● Answer: B | Rationale: Proper documentation is necessary to ensure safety and
identify patterns.
Q8. Hepatitis B vaccination must be offered to all employees with occupational
exposure within how many days of assignment?
● A) 5 days.
● B) 10 working days.
● C) 30 days.
● D) 60 days.
● Answer: B | Rationale: OSHA mandates this 10-day window.
PPE & Engineering Controls (Q9–Q15)
Q9. Which of the following is a Work Practice Control?
