NURS 6521 ADVANCED PHARMACOLOGY EXAM /ACTUAL NURS
6521 FINAL EXAM ADVANCED PHARMACOLOGY TEST BANK
2026/2027 PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND STUDY GUIDE COMPLETE
ACCURATE EXAM APPROVED QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES (100% CORRECT
VERIFIED SOLUTIONS) A NEW UPDATED VERSION 2026
EDITION|GUARANTEED PASS A+ |BRAND NEW! |INSTANT
DOWNLOAD PDF
Question 1
A 59-year-old man with a recent history of erectile dysfunction has
been assessed and prescribed sildenafil (Viagra). When providing
patient education to this man, the nurse should tell him which of the
following?
A) "You should take this medication with a high-fat meal to improve
absorption."
B) "You might find that your face becomes flushed, or you get a
headache after taking Viagra."
C) "You should avoid all sexual activity for at least 48 hours after
taking this medication."
D) "This medication will work immediately upon taking the first
dose without any side effects."
Correct Answer: B
,Rationale: Sildenafil is a phosphodiesterase type 5 (PDE5) inhibitor
that causes vasodilation. Common adverse effects include headache,
facial flushing, dyspepsia, and nasal congestion due to its
vasodilatory effects. Patients should be counseled about these
expected side effects. Taking the medication with a high-fat meal
delays absorption and reduces effectiveness. Sexual activity can be
attempted as early as 30-60 minutes after dosing, and there is no 48-
hour restriction.
Question 2
A patient takes etoposide for a testicular tumor refractory treatment.
The nursing assessment reveals that he is also taking warfarin. The
nurse must carefully monitor which of the following?
A) Serum potassium levels
B) Elevated prothrombin time
C) Blood glucose levels
D) Serum creatinine levels
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Etoposide can displace warfarin from protein-binding
sites, increasing the free fraction of warfarin and potentiating its
anticoagulant effect. This interaction increases the risk of bleeding,
and the patient's prothrombin time (PT) and International
,Normalized Ratio (INR) must be closely monitored. Dose
adjustments of warfarin may be necessary during concurrent therapy.
Question 3
A man is prescribed ciprofloxacin to treat a sexually transmitted
infection. The nurse will instruct the patient:
A) to take the medication only when symptoms return.
B) to complete the entire course of drug therapy.
C) to double the dose if a dose is missed.
D) to discontinue the medication once symptoms improve.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Ciprofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone antibiotic that requires
completion of the full prescribed course to ensure eradication of the
infection and to prevent the development of antibiotic resistance.
Premature discontinuation can lead to recurrent infection and the
emergence of resistant bacterial strains. Patients should never double
doses or stop therapy based on symptom resolution alone.
Question 4
, Drugs have a valid medical use but a high potential for psychological
and physiologic abuse. In an emergency, a Schedule II drug may be
prescribed by telephone if a written prescription cannot be provided
at the time. However, a written prescription must be provided within
72 hours with the words "authorization for emergency dispensing"
written on the prescription. These prescriptions cannot be refilled.
These are scheduled drugs:
A) Schedule I
B) Schedule II
C) Schedule III
D) Schedule IV
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Schedule II drugs have a high potential for abuse and
dependence but have accepted medical uses. Examples include
amphetamines, barbiturates, and opioid analgesics. Emergency
telephone prescriptions are permitted but must be followed by a
written prescription within 72 hours. These prescriptions cannot be
refilled; a new prescription is required each time. Schedule I drugs
have no accepted medical use, while Schedule III and IV drugs have
lower abuse potential.
Question 5
6521 FINAL EXAM ADVANCED PHARMACOLOGY TEST BANK
2026/2027 PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND STUDY GUIDE COMPLETE
ACCURATE EXAM APPROVED QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES (100% CORRECT
VERIFIED SOLUTIONS) A NEW UPDATED VERSION 2026
EDITION|GUARANTEED PASS A+ |BRAND NEW! |INSTANT
DOWNLOAD PDF
Question 1
A 59-year-old man with a recent history of erectile dysfunction has
been assessed and prescribed sildenafil (Viagra). When providing
patient education to this man, the nurse should tell him which of the
following?
A) "You should take this medication with a high-fat meal to improve
absorption."
B) "You might find that your face becomes flushed, or you get a
headache after taking Viagra."
C) "You should avoid all sexual activity for at least 48 hours after
taking this medication."
D) "This medication will work immediately upon taking the first
dose without any side effects."
Correct Answer: B
,Rationale: Sildenafil is a phosphodiesterase type 5 (PDE5) inhibitor
that causes vasodilation. Common adverse effects include headache,
facial flushing, dyspepsia, and nasal congestion due to its
vasodilatory effects. Patients should be counseled about these
expected side effects. Taking the medication with a high-fat meal
delays absorption and reduces effectiveness. Sexual activity can be
attempted as early as 30-60 minutes after dosing, and there is no 48-
hour restriction.
Question 2
A patient takes etoposide for a testicular tumor refractory treatment.
The nursing assessment reveals that he is also taking warfarin. The
nurse must carefully monitor which of the following?
A) Serum potassium levels
B) Elevated prothrombin time
C) Blood glucose levels
D) Serum creatinine levels
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Etoposide can displace warfarin from protein-binding
sites, increasing the free fraction of warfarin and potentiating its
anticoagulant effect. This interaction increases the risk of bleeding,
and the patient's prothrombin time (PT) and International
,Normalized Ratio (INR) must be closely monitored. Dose
adjustments of warfarin may be necessary during concurrent therapy.
Question 3
A man is prescribed ciprofloxacin to treat a sexually transmitted
infection. The nurse will instruct the patient:
A) to take the medication only when symptoms return.
B) to complete the entire course of drug therapy.
C) to double the dose if a dose is missed.
D) to discontinue the medication once symptoms improve.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Ciprofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone antibiotic that requires
completion of the full prescribed course to ensure eradication of the
infection and to prevent the development of antibiotic resistance.
Premature discontinuation can lead to recurrent infection and the
emergence of resistant bacterial strains. Patients should never double
doses or stop therapy based on symptom resolution alone.
Question 4
, Drugs have a valid medical use but a high potential for psychological
and physiologic abuse. In an emergency, a Schedule II drug may be
prescribed by telephone if a written prescription cannot be provided
at the time. However, a written prescription must be provided within
72 hours with the words "authorization for emergency dispensing"
written on the prescription. These prescriptions cannot be refilled.
These are scheduled drugs:
A) Schedule I
B) Schedule II
C) Schedule III
D) Schedule IV
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Schedule II drugs have a high potential for abuse and
dependence but have accepted medical uses. Examples include
amphetamines, barbiturates, and opioid analgesics. Emergency
telephone prescriptions are permitted but must be followed by a
written prescription within 72 hours. These prescriptions cannot be
refilled; a new prescription is required each time. Schedule I drugs
have no accepted medical use, while Schedule III and IV drugs have
lower abuse potential.
Question 5
