Page 1 of 138
NR 603 CEA EXAM & PRACTICE EXAM QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT VERIFIED SOLUTIONS LATEST UPDATE THIS YEAR –
JUST RELEASED
NR 603 CEA EXAM & PRACTICE EXAM
10-Line Exam Coverage in Points Form
1. Cardiovascular Disorders (20%) – Heart failure, ACS, atrial fibrillation management,
valvular disease, hypertensive crisis, aortic aneurysms, peripheral vascular disease,
diagnostic testing (TEE, CTA, stress testing)
2. Endocrine Disorders (15%) – Diabetes mellitus (Type 1/2, DKA/HHS), thyroid disorders
(hyper/hypothyroidism, Graves'), adrenal insufficiency (Cushing's, Addison's), pituitary
disorders, diabetes management in CKD
3. Gastrointestinal Disorders (15%) – GERD/Barrett's, achalasia, inflammatory bowel
disease (Crohn's/UC), liver disease (hepatitis, cirrhosis), peptic ulcer disease, esophageal
disorders, GI bleeding
4. Hematologic Disorders (10%) – Anemias (iron deficiency, B12/pernicious, aplastic),
leukemia, multiple myeloma, lymphoma (Hodgkin's/non-Hodgkin's), thrombocytopenia,
coagulation disorders
5. Pharmacology & Therapeutics (10%) – Anticoagulation management (warfarin, DOACs),
statin therapy, antimicrobial selection, medication adverse effects, drug interactions,
pharmacogenetics (CYP2D6, CYP2C9)
6. Neurologic Disorders (8%) – Stroke (ischemic vs. hemorrhagic), TIA, headache/migraine
management, Parkinson's, multiple sclerosis, peripheral neuropathy
7. Renal/Genitourinary Disorders (8%) – CKD management, nephrotic/nephritic
syndromes, UTIs, BPH, kidney stones, AKI classification
8. Pulmonary Disorders (8%) – COPD, asthma, pneumonia, pulmonary embolism,
respiratory assessment, ARDS
9. Rheumatologic & Autoimmune Disorders (6%) – Rheumatoid arthritis, SLE, gout,
psoriatic arthritis, autoimmune hepatitis
10. Special Populations & Clinical Reasoning (5%) – Geriatric considerations, medication
safety, diagnostic test selection, patient education, evidence-based guidelines
COMPREHENSIVE PRACTICE QUESTIONS
, Page 2 of 138
Section 1: Cardiovascular Disorders
1. A 60-year-old woman with a history of hypertension and diabetes presents with
progressive fatigue. Laboratory results reveal microcytic hypochromic anemia. What is the
most likely diagnosis?
A) Aplastic anemia
B) Iron deficiency anemia
C) Pernicious anemia
D) Anemia of chronic disease
Answer: B
Rationale: Microcytic hypochromic anemia with a low MCV (<80) and low MCHC is classic for
iron deficiency anemia. Common causes include chronic blood loss (GI), poor dietary intake, or
increased iron requirements. Aplastic anemia (A) presents with pancytopenia and hypocellular
bone marrow. Pernicious anemia (C) presents with macrocytic anemia (elevated MCV). Anemia
of chronic disease (D) typically presents with normocytic, normochromic anemia .
2. Which of the following medical procedures requires the patient to be sedated?
A) Tilt table test
B) Transesophageal echocardiogram (TEE)
C) Nuclear stress test
D) Transthoracic echocardiogram (TTE)
Answer: B
, Page 3 of 138
Rationale: TEE requires procedural sedation due to its invasive nature (insertion of the probe
into the esophagus). Patients undergoing TTE, tilt table, and nuclear stress tests remain fully
alert during these procedures. TEE is used to evaluate cardiac structures (valves, atria, aorta)
when TTE is suboptimal or for specific indications such as endocarditis evaluation .
3. Your patient has been diagnosed with a 4.5cm ascending aortic aneurysm. Which medical
imaging is considered standard of care for serial surveillance?
A) CT PE rule-out protocol
B) Transesophageal Echocardiogram
C) Plain film chest X-ray (CXR)
D) CT angiography of the chest
Answer: D
Rationale: CT angiography is the standard of care for measuring vascular luminal dimensions
with contrast. CT PE protocol is timed for the pulmonary artery and not appropriate for aortic
surveillance. CXR cannot provide multi-axis reconstruction needed for accurate measurement.
TEE is invasive, requires sedation, and is not needed for routine surveillance .
4. A patient presents with paroxysmal atrial fibrillation. Which procedure is commonly used
to treat this condition?
A) Cryoablation of the transition zone of the left pulmonary vein to left atrium
B) Placement of biventricular pacing
, Page 4 of 138
C) Radiofrequency ablation of the left ventricular apex
D) Overdrive pacing via an epicardial lead
Answer: A
Rationale: The transition zone from pulmonary vein to left atrium is the most common source of
atrial fibrillation and is treated with scarification, radiofrequency ablation, or cryotherapy. This
procedure impedes the electrical stimulation that triggers a-fib. Biventricular pacing (B) is for
heart failure with dyssynchrony. LV apex ablation (C) is not a standard procedure for a-fib.
Epicardial lead overdrive pacing (D) is not the primary treatment .
5. An 80-year-old man with a history of atrial fibrillation presents with sudden-onset
unilateral leg pain and pallor. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Acute arterial occlusion
B) Deep vein thrombosis
C) Peripheral artery disease
D) Cellulitis
Answer: A
Rationale: Sudden-onset unilateral leg pain with pallor in a patient with atrial fibrillation
suggests acute arterial occlusion from an embolus. Classic findings include the "six Ps": pain,
pallor, pulselessness, paresthesia, paralysis, and poikilothermia. DVT (B) would present with
swelling, warmth, and erythema. PAD (C) is chronic, with claudication. Cellulitis (D) presents
with erythema, warmth, and tenderness .
NR 603 CEA EXAM & PRACTICE EXAM QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT VERIFIED SOLUTIONS LATEST UPDATE THIS YEAR –
JUST RELEASED
NR 603 CEA EXAM & PRACTICE EXAM
10-Line Exam Coverage in Points Form
1. Cardiovascular Disorders (20%) – Heart failure, ACS, atrial fibrillation management,
valvular disease, hypertensive crisis, aortic aneurysms, peripheral vascular disease,
diagnostic testing (TEE, CTA, stress testing)
2. Endocrine Disorders (15%) – Diabetes mellitus (Type 1/2, DKA/HHS), thyroid disorders
(hyper/hypothyroidism, Graves'), adrenal insufficiency (Cushing's, Addison's), pituitary
disorders, diabetes management in CKD
3. Gastrointestinal Disorders (15%) – GERD/Barrett's, achalasia, inflammatory bowel
disease (Crohn's/UC), liver disease (hepatitis, cirrhosis), peptic ulcer disease, esophageal
disorders, GI bleeding
4. Hematologic Disorders (10%) – Anemias (iron deficiency, B12/pernicious, aplastic),
leukemia, multiple myeloma, lymphoma (Hodgkin's/non-Hodgkin's), thrombocytopenia,
coagulation disorders
5. Pharmacology & Therapeutics (10%) – Anticoagulation management (warfarin, DOACs),
statin therapy, antimicrobial selection, medication adverse effects, drug interactions,
pharmacogenetics (CYP2D6, CYP2C9)
6. Neurologic Disorders (8%) – Stroke (ischemic vs. hemorrhagic), TIA, headache/migraine
management, Parkinson's, multiple sclerosis, peripheral neuropathy
7. Renal/Genitourinary Disorders (8%) – CKD management, nephrotic/nephritic
syndromes, UTIs, BPH, kidney stones, AKI classification
8. Pulmonary Disorders (8%) – COPD, asthma, pneumonia, pulmonary embolism,
respiratory assessment, ARDS
9. Rheumatologic & Autoimmune Disorders (6%) – Rheumatoid arthritis, SLE, gout,
psoriatic arthritis, autoimmune hepatitis
10. Special Populations & Clinical Reasoning (5%) – Geriatric considerations, medication
safety, diagnostic test selection, patient education, evidence-based guidelines
COMPREHENSIVE PRACTICE QUESTIONS
, Page 2 of 138
Section 1: Cardiovascular Disorders
1. A 60-year-old woman with a history of hypertension and diabetes presents with
progressive fatigue. Laboratory results reveal microcytic hypochromic anemia. What is the
most likely diagnosis?
A) Aplastic anemia
B) Iron deficiency anemia
C) Pernicious anemia
D) Anemia of chronic disease
Answer: B
Rationale: Microcytic hypochromic anemia with a low MCV (<80) and low MCHC is classic for
iron deficiency anemia. Common causes include chronic blood loss (GI), poor dietary intake, or
increased iron requirements. Aplastic anemia (A) presents with pancytopenia and hypocellular
bone marrow. Pernicious anemia (C) presents with macrocytic anemia (elevated MCV). Anemia
of chronic disease (D) typically presents with normocytic, normochromic anemia .
2. Which of the following medical procedures requires the patient to be sedated?
A) Tilt table test
B) Transesophageal echocardiogram (TEE)
C) Nuclear stress test
D) Transthoracic echocardiogram (TTE)
Answer: B
, Page 3 of 138
Rationale: TEE requires procedural sedation due to its invasive nature (insertion of the probe
into the esophagus). Patients undergoing TTE, tilt table, and nuclear stress tests remain fully
alert during these procedures. TEE is used to evaluate cardiac structures (valves, atria, aorta)
when TTE is suboptimal or for specific indications such as endocarditis evaluation .
3. Your patient has been diagnosed with a 4.5cm ascending aortic aneurysm. Which medical
imaging is considered standard of care for serial surveillance?
A) CT PE rule-out protocol
B) Transesophageal Echocardiogram
C) Plain film chest X-ray (CXR)
D) CT angiography of the chest
Answer: D
Rationale: CT angiography is the standard of care for measuring vascular luminal dimensions
with contrast. CT PE protocol is timed for the pulmonary artery and not appropriate for aortic
surveillance. CXR cannot provide multi-axis reconstruction needed for accurate measurement.
TEE is invasive, requires sedation, and is not needed for routine surveillance .
4. A patient presents with paroxysmal atrial fibrillation. Which procedure is commonly used
to treat this condition?
A) Cryoablation of the transition zone of the left pulmonary vein to left atrium
B) Placement of biventricular pacing
, Page 4 of 138
C) Radiofrequency ablation of the left ventricular apex
D) Overdrive pacing via an epicardial lead
Answer: A
Rationale: The transition zone from pulmonary vein to left atrium is the most common source of
atrial fibrillation and is treated with scarification, radiofrequency ablation, or cryotherapy. This
procedure impedes the electrical stimulation that triggers a-fib. Biventricular pacing (B) is for
heart failure with dyssynchrony. LV apex ablation (C) is not a standard procedure for a-fib.
Epicardial lead overdrive pacing (D) is not the primary treatment .
5. An 80-year-old man with a history of atrial fibrillation presents with sudden-onset
unilateral leg pain and pallor. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Acute arterial occlusion
B) Deep vein thrombosis
C) Peripheral artery disease
D) Cellulitis
Answer: A
Rationale: Sudden-onset unilateral leg pain with pallor in a patient with atrial fibrillation
suggests acute arterial occlusion from an embolus. Classic findings include the "six Ps": pain,
pallor, pulselessness, paresthesia, paralysis, and poikilothermia. DVT (B) would present with
swelling, warmth, and erythema. PAD (C) is chronic, with claudication. Cellulitis (D) presents
with erythema, warmth, and tenderness .
