BSN 266 HESI Med Surg V1 Practice Exam: 200
Questions on Cardiovascular, Respiratory, GI, Renal,
Endocrine, & Neurological Disorders latest update this
year Download now and pass first try! Cardiovascular
Disorders
Q1. A client with chest pain has an ECG showing ST-segment elevation in leads
II, III, and aVF. Which coronary artery is most likely occluded?
• A) Left anterior descending artery
• B) Left circumflex artery
• C) Right coronary artery
• D) Posterior descending artery
Correct Answer: C) Right coronary artery
Rationale: Leads II, III, and aVF represent the inferior wall of the heart, which is
primarily supplied by the right coronary artery (RCA).
Q2. A nurse is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure. Which finding is
most indicative of this condition?
• A) Jugular vein distention
• B) Peripheral edema
• C) Bibasilar crackles
• D) Hepatomegaly
Correct Answer: C) Bibasilar crackles
Rationale: Left-sided heart failure leads to pulmonary congestion, manifesting as
crackles in the lung bases. JVD, peripheral edema, and hepatomegaly are signs of
right-sided failure.
,Q3. A client with heart failure reports a 3-pound weight gain in 24 hours. What
should the nurse do first?
• A) Administer furosemide as prescribed
• B) Assess for peripheral edema
• C) Restrict fluid intake
• D) Notify the healthcare provider
Correct Answer: B) Assess for peripheral edema
Rationale: Rapid weight gain suggests fluid retention. Assessing for peripheral
edema provides baseline data to determine the severity of fluid overload before
implementing further interventions.
Q4. Which finding in a client with heart failure best indicates fluid volume
excess?
• A) Rapid weight increase over a short period
• B) Decreased appetite after breakfast
• C) Mild headache relieved by rest
• D) Warm dry skin throughout the shift
Correct Answer: A) Rapid weight increase over a short period
Rationale: Daily weight change is one of the most sensitive indicators of fluid
retention in heart failure.
Q5. A client with unstable angina who had a cardiac catheterization is at risk for
which complication?
• A) Myocardial infarction
• B) Thrombus formation
• C) Cardiac tamponade
• D) Pulmonary embolism
,Correct Answer: B) Thrombus formation
Rationale: After cardiac catheterization, especially in a client with unstable
angina, the priority is to monitor for thrombus formation at the access site or
within the coronary arteries.
Q6. A client is prescribed furosemide (Lasix) for heart failure. Which statement
indicates a need for further teaching?
• A) "I should call my provider if I develop muscle cramps or weakness."
• B) "I will take this medication earlier in the day if possible."
• C) "I will watch for dizziness when standing up."
• D) "I should stop taking it whenever I notice increased ankle swelling."
Correct Answer: D) "I should stop taking it whenever I notice increased ankle
swelling."
Rationale: The client should not independently stop prescribed diuretics;
worsening edema should be reported, not self-managed by discontinuing the
medication.
Q7. Which nursing instruction is most appropriate for a client with hypertension
starting lisinopril?
• A) Rise slowly and report swelling of the face, lips, or tongue immediately
• B) Increase salt intake to avoid dizziness
• C) Stop the medication as soon as blood pressure improves
• D) Expect urine to turn orange while taking this drug
Correct Answer: A) Rise slowly and report swelling of the face, lips, or tongue
immediately
Rationale: ACE inhibitors can cause orthostatic hypotension and, rarely,
angioedema, which requires urgent reporting.
, Q8. A client with atrial fibrillation is at highest risk for which complication?
• A) Myocardial infarction
• B) Stroke
• C) Heart failure
• D) Acute pancreatitis
Correct Answer: B) Stroke
Rationale: Atrial fibrillation increases the risk of thromboembolism, which can
lead to a stroke.
Q9. A client who underwent cardiac stent placement 4 days ago reports sudden
onset chest pressure and shortness of breath. Which action should the nurse
take next?
• A) Administer nitroglycerin sublingually
• B) Obtain a 12-lead ECG and begin continuous cardiac monitoring
• C) Give oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula
• D) Prepare the client for immediate cardiac catheterization
Correct Answer: B) Obtain a 12-lead ECG and begin continuous cardiac
monitoring
Rationale: Sudden chest pressure with recent stent placement suggests possible
stent thrombosis. ECG and continuous monitoring are the priority actions to
identify acute ischemia.
Q10. The nurse is teaching a client about the DASH (Dietary Approaches to Stop
Hypertension) eating plan. Which statement indicates understanding?
• A) "I should eat more red meat for protein."
• B) "I will include plenty of fruits, vegetables, and whole grains."
• C) "I can continue to use salt freely in my cooking."
Questions on Cardiovascular, Respiratory, GI, Renal,
Endocrine, & Neurological Disorders latest update this
year Download now and pass first try! Cardiovascular
Disorders
Q1. A client with chest pain has an ECG showing ST-segment elevation in leads
II, III, and aVF. Which coronary artery is most likely occluded?
• A) Left anterior descending artery
• B) Left circumflex artery
• C) Right coronary artery
• D) Posterior descending artery
Correct Answer: C) Right coronary artery
Rationale: Leads II, III, and aVF represent the inferior wall of the heart, which is
primarily supplied by the right coronary artery (RCA).
Q2. A nurse is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure. Which finding is
most indicative of this condition?
• A) Jugular vein distention
• B) Peripheral edema
• C) Bibasilar crackles
• D) Hepatomegaly
Correct Answer: C) Bibasilar crackles
Rationale: Left-sided heart failure leads to pulmonary congestion, manifesting as
crackles in the lung bases. JVD, peripheral edema, and hepatomegaly are signs of
right-sided failure.
,Q3. A client with heart failure reports a 3-pound weight gain in 24 hours. What
should the nurse do first?
• A) Administer furosemide as prescribed
• B) Assess for peripheral edema
• C) Restrict fluid intake
• D) Notify the healthcare provider
Correct Answer: B) Assess for peripheral edema
Rationale: Rapid weight gain suggests fluid retention. Assessing for peripheral
edema provides baseline data to determine the severity of fluid overload before
implementing further interventions.
Q4. Which finding in a client with heart failure best indicates fluid volume
excess?
• A) Rapid weight increase over a short period
• B) Decreased appetite after breakfast
• C) Mild headache relieved by rest
• D) Warm dry skin throughout the shift
Correct Answer: A) Rapid weight increase over a short period
Rationale: Daily weight change is one of the most sensitive indicators of fluid
retention in heart failure.
Q5. A client with unstable angina who had a cardiac catheterization is at risk for
which complication?
• A) Myocardial infarction
• B) Thrombus formation
• C) Cardiac tamponade
• D) Pulmonary embolism
,Correct Answer: B) Thrombus formation
Rationale: After cardiac catheterization, especially in a client with unstable
angina, the priority is to monitor for thrombus formation at the access site or
within the coronary arteries.
Q6. A client is prescribed furosemide (Lasix) for heart failure. Which statement
indicates a need for further teaching?
• A) "I should call my provider if I develop muscle cramps or weakness."
• B) "I will take this medication earlier in the day if possible."
• C) "I will watch for dizziness when standing up."
• D) "I should stop taking it whenever I notice increased ankle swelling."
Correct Answer: D) "I should stop taking it whenever I notice increased ankle
swelling."
Rationale: The client should not independently stop prescribed diuretics;
worsening edema should be reported, not self-managed by discontinuing the
medication.
Q7. Which nursing instruction is most appropriate for a client with hypertension
starting lisinopril?
• A) Rise slowly and report swelling of the face, lips, or tongue immediately
• B) Increase salt intake to avoid dizziness
• C) Stop the medication as soon as blood pressure improves
• D) Expect urine to turn orange while taking this drug
Correct Answer: A) Rise slowly and report swelling of the face, lips, or tongue
immediately
Rationale: ACE inhibitors can cause orthostatic hypotension and, rarely,
angioedema, which requires urgent reporting.
, Q8. A client with atrial fibrillation is at highest risk for which complication?
• A) Myocardial infarction
• B) Stroke
• C) Heart failure
• D) Acute pancreatitis
Correct Answer: B) Stroke
Rationale: Atrial fibrillation increases the risk of thromboembolism, which can
lead to a stroke.
Q9. A client who underwent cardiac stent placement 4 days ago reports sudden
onset chest pressure and shortness of breath. Which action should the nurse
take next?
• A) Administer nitroglycerin sublingually
• B) Obtain a 12-lead ECG and begin continuous cardiac monitoring
• C) Give oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula
• D) Prepare the client for immediate cardiac catheterization
Correct Answer: B) Obtain a 12-lead ECG and begin continuous cardiac
monitoring
Rationale: Sudden chest pressure with recent stent placement suggests possible
stent thrombosis. ECG and continuous monitoring are the priority actions to
identify acute ischemia.
Q10. The nurse is teaching a client about the DASH (Dietary Approaches to Stop
Hypertension) eating plan. Which statement indicates understanding?
• A) "I should eat more red meat for protein."
• B) "I will include plenty of fruits, vegetables, and whole grains."
• C) "I can continue to use salt freely in my cooking."
