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ATI PN FUNDAMENTALS PROCTORED EXAM 2026 | 300 PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS & RATIONALES | LATEST GRADED A+ VERIFIED PACK

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ATI PN FUNDAMENTALS PROCTORED EXAM 2026 | PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS & RATIONALES | LATEST GRADED A+ VERIFIED PACK

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ATI PN FUNDAMENTALS PROCTORED EXAM 2023 –
200 PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS &
RATIONALES



1. A nurse is preparing to administer medications to a client. Which of the
following is the most important action to prevent medication errors?
A) Check the client's allergies
B) Use two client identifiers (name and date of birth)
C) Verify the medication dose with another nurse
D) Review the client's diagnosis

*Answer: B) Use two client identifiers (name and date of birth)
Rationale: The "right client" is one of the six rights of medication administration. Using
two identifiers (e.g., name and date of birth) is the most important action to ensure the
medication is given to the correct client. All other actions are important but secondary.




2. A nurse is caring for a client on contact precautions. Which of the following
actions is correct?
A) Place the client in a negative-pressure room
B) Wear a gown and gloves when entering the room
C) Wear an N95 respirator
D) Keep the door closed at all times

*Answer: B) Wear a gown and gloves when entering the room
Rationale: Contact precautions require gloves and a gown for all interactions with the
client or the environment. Negative-pressure rooms and N95 respirators are for airborne
precautions. Door closure is also for airborne precautions.

,3. A client is on fall precautions. Which of the following is the priority nursing
intervention?
A) Place the bed in the lowest position
B) Keep the call light within reach
C) Perform a fall risk assessment
D) Use bed alarms

*Answer: C) Perform a fall risk assessment
Rationale: The priority is to assess the client's fall risk using a validated tool (e.g., Morse
scale). All other interventions are implemented based on the assessment findings. You
cannot plan interventions without first assessing the risk.




4. A nurse is preparing to insert an indwelling urinary catheter. Which of the
following techniques is correct?
A) Sterile technique for the entire procedure
B) Clean technique for the entire procedure
C) Sterile gloves only, no drape needed
D) Clean gloves with sterile catheter

*Answer: A) Sterile technique for the entire procedure
Rationale: Indwelling urinary catheter insertion requires sterile technique (surgical asepsis)
to prevent introducing microorganisms into the bladder. This includes sterile gloves, sterile
drapes, sterile lubricant, and sterile catheter. Clean technique is not sufficient.




5. A nurse is caring for a client with a nasogastric (NG) tube. Which of the
following is the correct way to verify placement?
A) Auscultate for air insufflation
B) Check the pH of aspirated gastric fluid
C) Place the client in Trendelenburg position
D) Observe for bubbling in the water seal

*Answer: B) Check the pH of aspirated gastric fluid
Rationale: The most reliable method to verify NG tube placement is pH testing of aspirated
gastric fluid (pH ≤ 5 indicates gastric placement). Auscultation (whoosh test) is no longer

,recommended due to inaccuracy. X-ray is the gold standard but is not always performed
at the bedside.




6. A client is receiving enteral feedings via a gastrostomy tube. The nurse should
place the client in which position during the feeding?
A) Supine
B) Prone
C) Semi-Fowler's (head of bed elevated 30-45°)
D) Trendelenburg

*Answer: C) Semi-Fowler's (head of bed elevated 30-45°)
Rationale: The head of the bed should be elevated 30-45° during enteral feedings to
reduce the risk of aspiration. Supine positioning increases the risk of regurgitation and
aspiration. Prone is not appropriate. Trendelenburg would worsen reflux.




7. A nurse is performing a sterile dressing change. Which of the following actions
indicates a break in sterile technique?
A) Opening the sterile package away from the body
B) Placing sterile items within the sterile field
C) Reaching over the sterile field to retrieve an item
D) Using sterile forceps to handle sterile supplies

*Answer: C) Reaching over the sterile field to retrieve an item
Rationale: Reaching over the sterile field is a break in sterile technique because it
contaminates the field. The nurse should walk around to the other side or ask for
assistance. Opening the package away from the body, placing items in the field, and using
sterile forceps are all correct techniques.




8. A nurse is preparing to administer a tuberculin skin test (TST). Which of the
following is the correct injection route?
A) Subcutaneous
B) Intramuscular

, C) Intradermal
D) Intravenous

*Answer: C) Intradermal
Rationale: The tuberculin skin test is administered intradermally, using a 27-gauge needle
at a 10-15° angle, creating a wheal (bleb) on the forearm. Subcutaneous injections go into
fatty tissue. Intramuscular goes into muscle. Intravenous is into a vein.




9. A client is on a clear liquid diet. Which of the following items can the client
have?
A) Orange juice with pulp
B) Chicken broth
C) Cream of wheat
D) Ice cream

*Answer: B) Chicken broth
Rationale: A clear liquid diet includes foods that are liquid at room temperature and
transparent: broth, clear juices (apple, cranberry), gelatin (Jell-O), and tea/coffee. Orange
juice with pulp, cream of wheat, and ice cream are on full liquid or soft diets.




10. A nurse is caring for a client with a wound that is draining purulent exudate.
Which of the following is the most appropriate dressing?
A) Dry gauze
B) Transparent film
C) Hydrocolloid
D) Alginate (calcium alginate)

*Answer: D) Alginate (calcium alginate)
Rationale: Alginate dressings are highly absorbent and are used for wounds with moderate
to heavy exudate. They form a gel when in contact with wound fluid. Dry gauze can
adhere to the wound. Transparent film is for dry wounds. Hydrocolloid is for light to
moderate exudate.

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