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HESI EXIT EXAM (E2) PN PRACTICE EXAM LATEST UPDATED FINAL EXAM WITH MOST TESTED 100 QUESTIONS AND 100% CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS WITH DETAILED RATIONALES PLUS ANSWER KEY ALREADY GRADED A+ FINAL EXAM UPDATED VERSION INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF

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HESI EXIT EXAM (E2) PN PRACTICE EXAM LATEST UPDATED FINAL EXAM WITH MOST TESTED 100 QUESTIONS AND 100% CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS WITH DETAILED RATIONALES PLUS ANSWER KEY ALREADY GRADED A+ FINAL EXAM UPDATED VERSION INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF

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HESI EXIT EXAM (E2) PN PRACTICE EXAM LATEST
UPDATED FINAL EXAM WITH MOST TESTED 100
QUESTIONS AND 100% CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS
WITH DETAILED RATIONALES PLUS ANSWER KEY
ALREADY GRADED A+ 2026-2027 FINAL EXAM
UPDATED VERSION INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF




1. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide.
Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor most
closely?
A. Serum sodium
B. Serum potassium
C. Serum calcium
D. Serum magnesium
Correct Answer: B

,Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes
significant potassium loss in the urine, leading to
hypokalemia. Hypokalemia can precipitate cardiac
arrhythmias, especially in clients taking digitalis
preparations.


2. A practical nurse is caring for a client who is
postoperative day one following a total hip arthroplasty.
Which action is most important to prevent dislocation of
the new joint?
A. Keep the client's legs crossed at the ankles
B. Position the client with hips flexed greater than 90
degrees
C. Maintain the client in a supine position with a pillow
between the knees
D. Encourage the client to turn onto the operative side
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Following hip arthroplasty, the hip should be
maintained in a neutral position. Keeping a pillow
between the knees when supine or side-lying prevents
adduction and internal rotation, which are the primary
movements that can cause dislocation. Flexion should
be limited to less than 90 degrees.

,3. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is experiencing
diaphoresis, pallor, and confusion. The nurse's priority
action is to:
A. Administer 15 grams of fast-acting carbohydrates
B. Administer 1 mg of glucagon intramuscularly
C. Check the client's blood glucose level
D. Call the healthcare provider for further orders
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: While the client is exhibiting signs of
hypoglycemia, the nurse's priority is to confirm the
diagnosis by checking the blood glucose level before
implementing any intervention. Treatment should be
based on objective data to avoid overtreatment.


4. A pregnant client at 39 weeks gestation is admitted
with a biophysical profile (BPP) score of 6 out of 10.
Which component of the BPP is most indicative of acute
fetal distress?
A. Fetal tone
B. Amniotic fluid volume
C. Fetal breathing movements
D. Non-stress test (NST)

, Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The non-stress test (NST) assesses fetal heart
rate reactivity in response to movement. A non-reactive
NST can indicate acute hypoxia or central nervous
system depression. The other components (fetal tone,
breathing, and amniotic fluid) are more indicative of
chronic conditions.


5. A client is prescribed phenytoin for seizure control.
Which instruction should the practical nurse include in
the teaching plan?
A. "Take this medication with milk to avoid stomach
upset."
B. "You may stop the medication once you are seizure-
free for one month."
C. "Report any swelling of your gums to your healthcare
provider."
D. "This medication may cause your urine to turn
orange."
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Phenytoin commonly causes gingival
hyperplasia (overgrowth of gum tissue). Clients should
be instructed to practice meticulous oral hygiene and
report any gum swelling or bleeding to their healthcare

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