Project Management Professional
(PMP) Examination Practice Exam 2026
| 100 Questions & Answers with
Detailed Rationales | Complete PMP
Exam Prep & Study Guide
Question 1. A project manager is initiating a project and wants to ensure that
everyone understands the project's purpose, objectives, and high-level
requirements. Which document should the project manager develop first?
A. Project management plan
B. Project charter
C. Scope baseline
D. Requirements documentation
Answer: B. Project charter
Rationale: The project charter formally authorizes the project and documents
high-level objectives, requirements, assumptions, constraints, and the project
manager's authority.
Question 2. Which process involves identifying individuals, groups, or
organizations that may affect or be affected by the project?
,A. Plan Stakeholder Engagement
B. Manage Stakeholder Engagement
C. Identify Stakeholders
D. Monitor Stakeholder Engagement
Answer: C. Identify Stakeholders
Rationale: Identify Stakeholders determines who can influence the project or be
influenced by it and analyzes their interests, influence, and potential impact.
Question 3. A project manager needs to determine the detailed work required to
produce the project's deliverables. Which technique is most appropriate?
A. Benchmarking
B. Decomposition
C. Simulation
D. Expert judgment
Answer: B. Decomposition
Rationale: Decomposition breaks project scope and deliverables into smaller,
more manageable components that can be planned and controlled.
Question 4. What is the primary purpose of a Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)?
A. To assign employees to activities
B. To estimate project costs
C. To decompose project scope into manageable components
D. To establish stakeholder communication preferences
Answer: C. To decompose project scope into manageable components
,Rationale: The WBS organizes and decomposes the total project scope into
smaller components, ultimately supporting planning, estimating, scheduling,
and control.
Question 5. A project manager discovers that a project activity cannot begin until
another activity has been completed. What type of relationship does this
represent?
A. Start-to-start
B. Finish-to-finish
C. Finish-to-start
D. Start-to-finish
Answer: C. Finish-to-start
Rationale: In a finish-to-start relationship, the successor activity cannot start
until the predecessor activity has finished.
Question 6. Which document describes how the project will be executed,
monitored, controlled, and closed?
A. Project charter
B. Project management plan
C. Business case
D. Stakeholder register
Answer: B. Project management plan
Rationale: The project management plan integrates subsidiary plans and
baselines and describes how the project will be managed throughout its life
cycle.
, Question 7. A project manager wants to identify possible threats and
opportunities that could affect project objectives. Which process should be
performed?
A. Identify Risks
B. Control Risks
C. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
D. Plan Risk Responses
Answer: A. Identify Risks
Rationale: Identify Risks determines individual project risks and overall project
risk sources that could influence project objectives.
Question 8. Which risk response strategy is commonly used for a threat when the
project team decides to eliminate the cause of the risk?
A. Mitigate
B. Transfer
C. Avoid
D. Accept
Answer: C. Avoid
Rationale: Risk avoidance involves changing the project plan or conditions to
eliminate the threat or protect the project from its potential impact.
Question 9. A project manager calculates that a risk has a 30% probability of
causing a $20,000 loss. What is the risk's expected monetary value?
A. $6,000
B. $14,000
C. $20,000
D. $26,000
(PMP) Examination Practice Exam 2026
| 100 Questions & Answers with
Detailed Rationales | Complete PMP
Exam Prep & Study Guide
Question 1. A project manager is initiating a project and wants to ensure that
everyone understands the project's purpose, objectives, and high-level
requirements. Which document should the project manager develop first?
A. Project management plan
B. Project charter
C. Scope baseline
D. Requirements documentation
Answer: B. Project charter
Rationale: The project charter formally authorizes the project and documents
high-level objectives, requirements, assumptions, constraints, and the project
manager's authority.
Question 2. Which process involves identifying individuals, groups, or
organizations that may affect or be affected by the project?
,A. Plan Stakeholder Engagement
B. Manage Stakeholder Engagement
C. Identify Stakeholders
D. Monitor Stakeholder Engagement
Answer: C. Identify Stakeholders
Rationale: Identify Stakeholders determines who can influence the project or be
influenced by it and analyzes their interests, influence, and potential impact.
Question 3. A project manager needs to determine the detailed work required to
produce the project's deliverables. Which technique is most appropriate?
A. Benchmarking
B. Decomposition
C. Simulation
D. Expert judgment
Answer: B. Decomposition
Rationale: Decomposition breaks project scope and deliverables into smaller,
more manageable components that can be planned and controlled.
Question 4. What is the primary purpose of a Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)?
A. To assign employees to activities
B. To estimate project costs
C. To decompose project scope into manageable components
D. To establish stakeholder communication preferences
Answer: C. To decompose project scope into manageable components
,Rationale: The WBS organizes and decomposes the total project scope into
smaller components, ultimately supporting planning, estimating, scheduling,
and control.
Question 5. A project manager discovers that a project activity cannot begin until
another activity has been completed. What type of relationship does this
represent?
A. Start-to-start
B. Finish-to-finish
C. Finish-to-start
D. Start-to-finish
Answer: C. Finish-to-start
Rationale: In a finish-to-start relationship, the successor activity cannot start
until the predecessor activity has finished.
Question 6. Which document describes how the project will be executed,
monitored, controlled, and closed?
A. Project charter
B. Project management plan
C. Business case
D. Stakeholder register
Answer: B. Project management plan
Rationale: The project management plan integrates subsidiary plans and
baselines and describes how the project will be managed throughout its life
cycle.
, Question 7. A project manager wants to identify possible threats and
opportunities that could affect project objectives. Which process should be
performed?
A. Identify Risks
B. Control Risks
C. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
D. Plan Risk Responses
Answer: A. Identify Risks
Rationale: Identify Risks determines individual project risks and overall project
risk sources that could influence project objectives.
Question 8. Which risk response strategy is commonly used for a threat when the
project team decides to eliminate the cause of the risk?
A. Mitigate
B. Transfer
C. Avoid
D. Accept
Answer: C. Avoid
Rationale: Risk avoidance involves changing the project plan or conditions to
eliminate the threat or protect the project from its potential impact.
Question 9. A project manager calculates that a risk has a 30% probability of
causing a $20,000 loss. What is the risk's expected monetary value?
A. $6,000
B. $14,000
C. $20,000
D. $26,000
