Latest NUR 6001 – Advanced Health Assessment exam with verified answers and
rationales 2026/2027 version
1. During the health history interview, which technique best encourages the
patient to provide detailed information?
A. Asking only yes/no questions
B. Using open-ended questions
C. Interrupting the patient frequently
D. Asking multiple questions simultaneously
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Open-ended questions encourage patients to describe symptoms, concerns, and
experiences in their own words, resulting in more complete and accurate information.
2. Which component of the health history explores illnesses affecting blood
relatives?
A. Social history
B. Family history
C. Past surgical history
D. Review of systems
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Family history identifies inherited diseases and conditions that may increase a
patient's health risks.
3. Which sequence is generally recommended during a physical examination?
A. Inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation
B. Auscultation, percussion, inspection, palpation
C. Palpation, inspection, auscultation, percussion
D. Percussion, inspection, palpation, auscultation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The standard sequence is inspection, palpation, percussion, and auscultation. The
abdominal examination is an exception, where auscultation is performed before palpation and
percussion.
,4. Which pulse is palpated on the thumb side of the wrist?
A. Femoral pulse
B. Radial pulse
C. Popliteal pulse
D. Brachial pulse
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The radial artery is located along the lateral aspect of the wrist on the thumb side.
5. A blood pressure reading of 118/76 mmHg in a healthy adult is best classified
as:
A. Normal blood pressure
B. Stage 1 hypertension
C. Stage 2 hypertension
D. Hypertensive crisis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: According to current U.S. guidelines, a blood pressure below 120/80 mmHg is
considered normal.
6. Which cranial nerve is responsible for the sense of smell?
A. Cranial Nerve I
B. Cranial Nerve II
C. Cranial Nerve V
D. Cranial Nerve VIII
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The olfactory nerve (CN I) transmits smell sensations from the nasal mucosa to the
brain.
7. Which cranial nerve is tested using the Snellen chart?
,A. CN I
B. CN II
C. CN VII
D. CN XII
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The Snellen chart evaluates visual acuity, a function of the optic nerve (CN II).
8. Which examination technique should be used first when assessing a skin
lesion?
A. Inspection
B. Palpation
C. Percussion
D. Auscultation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Inspection allows assessment of the lesion's size, color, symmetry, border, and
distribution before touching it.
9. Which skin finding is considered abnormal and may indicate melanoma?
A. Symmetric, evenly colored nevus
B. Irregular border with color variation
C. Small uniform brown macule
D. Stable freckle
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Irregular borders, multiple colors, and asymmetry are warning signs for melanoma
(ABCDE criteria).
10. Which structure is assessed when testing pupillary light reflexes?
A. Cranial nerves II and III
B. Cranial nerves V and VII
C. Cranial nerves VIII and IX
D. Cranial nerves X and XII
, Correct Answer: A
Rationale: CN II receives the light stimulus, while CN III controls pupillary constriction.
11. Which finding is expected in a healthy adult's tympanic membrane?
A. Pearly gray and translucent
B. Bright red with bulging appearance
C. Thick yellow membrane
D. Black discoloration
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A normal tympanic membrane is pearly gray, translucent, and slightly concave with a
visible light reflex.
12. Which sinus is located above the eyebrows?
A. Maxillary sinus
B. Frontal sinus
C. Ethmoid sinus
D. Sphenoid sinus
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The frontal sinuses are located within the frontal bone above the eyes.
13. Which assessment finding suggests dehydration?
A. Dry mucous membranes
B. Moist oral mucosa
C. Brisk skin recoil in a young adult
D. Normal capillary refill
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Dry mucous membranes are a common sign of fluid deficit.
rationales 2026/2027 version
1. During the health history interview, which technique best encourages the
patient to provide detailed information?
A. Asking only yes/no questions
B. Using open-ended questions
C. Interrupting the patient frequently
D. Asking multiple questions simultaneously
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Open-ended questions encourage patients to describe symptoms, concerns, and
experiences in their own words, resulting in more complete and accurate information.
2. Which component of the health history explores illnesses affecting blood
relatives?
A. Social history
B. Family history
C. Past surgical history
D. Review of systems
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Family history identifies inherited diseases and conditions that may increase a
patient's health risks.
3. Which sequence is generally recommended during a physical examination?
A. Inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation
B. Auscultation, percussion, inspection, palpation
C. Palpation, inspection, auscultation, percussion
D. Percussion, inspection, palpation, auscultation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The standard sequence is inspection, palpation, percussion, and auscultation. The
abdominal examination is an exception, where auscultation is performed before palpation and
percussion.
,4. Which pulse is palpated on the thumb side of the wrist?
A. Femoral pulse
B. Radial pulse
C. Popliteal pulse
D. Brachial pulse
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The radial artery is located along the lateral aspect of the wrist on the thumb side.
5. A blood pressure reading of 118/76 mmHg in a healthy adult is best classified
as:
A. Normal blood pressure
B. Stage 1 hypertension
C. Stage 2 hypertension
D. Hypertensive crisis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: According to current U.S. guidelines, a blood pressure below 120/80 mmHg is
considered normal.
6. Which cranial nerve is responsible for the sense of smell?
A. Cranial Nerve I
B. Cranial Nerve II
C. Cranial Nerve V
D. Cranial Nerve VIII
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The olfactory nerve (CN I) transmits smell sensations from the nasal mucosa to the
brain.
7. Which cranial nerve is tested using the Snellen chart?
,A. CN I
B. CN II
C. CN VII
D. CN XII
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The Snellen chart evaluates visual acuity, a function of the optic nerve (CN II).
8. Which examination technique should be used first when assessing a skin
lesion?
A. Inspection
B. Palpation
C. Percussion
D. Auscultation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Inspection allows assessment of the lesion's size, color, symmetry, border, and
distribution before touching it.
9. Which skin finding is considered abnormal and may indicate melanoma?
A. Symmetric, evenly colored nevus
B. Irregular border with color variation
C. Small uniform brown macule
D. Stable freckle
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Irregular borders, multiple colors, and asymmetry are warning signs for melanoma
(ABCDE criteria).
10. Which structure is assessed when testing pupillary light reflexes?
A. Cranial nerves II and III
B. Cranial nerves V and VII
C. Cranial nerves VIII and IX
D. Cranial nerves X and XII
, Correct Answer: A
Rationale: CN II receives the light stimulus, while CN III controls pupillary constriction.
11. Which finding is expected in a healthy adult's tympanic membrane?
A. Pearly gray and translucent
B. Bright red with bulging appearance
C. Thick yellow membrane
D. Black discoloration
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A normal tympanic membrane is pearly gray, translucent, and slightly concave with a
visible light reflex.
12. Which sinus is located above the eyebrows?
A. Maxillary sinus
B. Frontal sinus
C. Ethmoid sinus
D. Sphenoid sinus
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The frontal sinuses are located within the frontal bone above the eyes.
13. Which assessment finding suggests dehydration?
A. Dry mucous membranes
B. Moist oral mucosa
C. Brisk skin recoil in a young adult
D. Normal capillary refill
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Dry mucous membranes are a common sign of fluid deficit.
