Test Bank 2 for NUR 635 Final GCU Questions and
Correct Answers Review / NUR 635 Advanced
Pharmacology Final Exam 2026-2027 Latest Practice
Questions with Correct Answers
What does the inappropriate use of antibiotics cause?
A) Improved outcomes
B) Antimicrobial resistance
C) Faster recovery
D) Reduced side effects
-ANSWER- B) Antimicrobial resistance
What is the first-line drug for moderate generalized anxiety disorder?
A) Alprazolam
B) Buspar (buspirone)
C) Diazepam
D) Lorazepam
-ANSWER- B) Buspar (buspirone)
When working up a patient for depression, what labs should be drawn first?
A) CBC
B) Thyroid panel
C) CMP
D) Lipid panel
-ANSWER- B) Thyroid panel
What is a good drug for the treatment of anxiety and depression?
A) Lexapro (SSRI)
B) Wellbutrin
C) Prozac
D) Paxil
-ANSWER- A) Lexapro (SSRI)
How do you taper an SSRI?
A) Decrease by 50% for 3-4 days and then another 50% for 3-4 days
B) Stop abruptly
1
,C) Decrease by 25% every week
D) Decrease by 10% every day
-ANSWER- A) Decrease by 50% for 3-4 days and then another 50% for 3-4 days
Paroxetine (Paxil) has a short half-life of 21 hours. Why is it important for patients
to take it on time every day and not run out?
A) It causes severe weight gain
B) Short half-life; withdrawal occurs quickly
C) It causes sedation
D) It interacts with food
-ANSWER- B) Short half-life; withdrawal occurs quickly
In asthma management, if a patient has symptoms more than 2 times a week, what
does that indicate?
A) Well-controlled asthma
B) Not well-controlled; needs step-up therapy
C) Mild intermittent asthma
D) No treatment needed
-ANSWER- B) Not well-controlled; needs step-up therapy
If a patient with asthma has both an inhaled beta agonist and an inhaled
corticosteroid, which one do they use first?
A) Corticosteroid first
B) Beta agonist first to open the airway, then the steroid
C) Either order is fine
D) Use them at different times of the day
-ANSWER- B) Beta agonist first to open the airway, then the steroid
What is the first-line treatment for mild intermittent asthma?
A) Low-dose inhaled corticosteroid
B) SABA (albuterol PRN)
C) LABA
D) Leukotriene receptor antagonist
-ANSWER- B) SABA (albuterol PRN)
Which patients are at risk for a fatal asthma attack?
A) Patients who have never been hospitalized
B) Patients with mild asthma
C) Patients who have been intubated or hospitalized for asthma
2
,D) Patients with exercise-induced asthma
-ANSWER- C) Patients who have been intubated or hospitalized for asthma
What is the cross-sensitivity between cephalosporins and penicillins?
A) Beta-lactam ring
B) Sulfa group
C) Aminoglycoside structure
D) Macrolide ring
-ANSWER- A) Beta-lactam ring
What drug improves the symptoms of GERD by increasing lower esophageal tone?
A) Omeprazole
B) Metoclopramide (Reglan)
C) Famotidine
D) Antacids
-ANSWER- B) Metoclopramide (Reglan)
Spiriva (tiotropium) is used for the treatment of what?
A) Asthma
B) COPD
C) Allergic rhinitis
D) Pneumonia
-ANSWER- B) COPD
If you prescribe betamethasone (inhaled corticosteroid), how do you instruct the
patient to use it?
A) Use it PRN
B) Use it every day and rinse mouth after use to prevent thrush
C) Use it only when symptoms are severe
D) Use it before exercise
-ANSWER- B) Use it every day and rinse mouth after use to prevent thrush
When someone is taking betaxolol ophthalmic drops, what do we need to watch
out for?
A) Hypertension
B) Hypotension and bradycardia
C) Tachycardia
D) Hyperglycemia
-ANSWER- B) Hypotension and bradycardia
3
, What is the rule with Flagyl (metronidazole)?
A) Take with food
B) Avoid alcohol
C) Take on an empty stomach
D) Avoid sunlight
-ANSWER- B) Avoid alcohol
What do we reserve fluoroquinolones for?
A) Mild infections
B) CAP in patients with comorbidities
C) Viral infections
D) Prophylaxis
-ANSWER- B) CAP in patients with comorbidities
What are the black box warnings for fluoroquinolones?
A) Hepatotoxicity
B) Spontaneous tendon rupture
C) Nephrotoxicity
D) Cardiotoxicity
-ANSWER- B) Spontaneous tendon rupture
A patient taking clindamycin develops frequent diarrhea. What is the likely
diagnosis?
A) Viral gastroenteritis
B) Pseudomembranous colitis (C. diff)
C) Food poisoning
D) Irritable bowel syndrome
-ANSWER- B) Pseudomembranous colitis (C. diff)
G6PD deficiency can trigger anemia when exposed to:
A) Penicillins
B) Sulfonamides and fava beans
C) Tetracyclines
D) Macrolides
-ANSWER- B) Sulfonamides and fava beans
Can tetracyclines be used in pregnant women or those with renal dysfunction?
A) Yes, they are safe
B) No, but they can be used in adolescents whose teeth are already developed
C) Yes, in all populations
4
Correct Answers Review / NUR 635 Advanced
Pharmacology Final Exam 2026-2027 Latest Practice
Questions with Correct Answers
What does the inappropriate use of antibiotics cause?
A) Improved outcomes
B) Antimicrobial resistance
C) Faster recovery
D) Reduced side effects
-ANSWER- B) Antimicrobial resistance
What is the first-line drug for moderate generalized anxiety disorder?
A) Alprazolam
B) Buspar (buspirone)
C) Diazepam
D) Lorazepam
-ANSWER- B) Buspar (buspirone)
When working up a patient for depression, what labs should be drawn first?
A) CBC
B) Thyroid panel
C) CMP
D) Lipid panel
-ANSWER- B) Thyroid panel
What is a good drug for the treatment of anxiety and depression?
A) Lexapro (SSRI)
B) Wellbutrin
C) Prozac
D) Paxil
-ANSWER- A) Lexapro (SSRI)
How do you taper an SSRI?
A) Decrease by 50% for 3-4 days and then another 50% for 3-4 days
B) Stop abruptly
1
,C) Decrease by 25% every week
D) Decrease by 10% every day
-ANSWER- A) Decrease by 50% for 3-4 days and then another 50% for 3-4 days
Paroxetine (Paxil) has a short half-life of 21 hours. Why is it important for patients
to take it on time every day and not run out?
A) It causes severe weight gain
B) Short half-life; withdrawal occurs quickly
C) It causes sedation
D) It interacts with food
-ANSWER- B) Short half-life; withdrawal occurs quickly
In asthma management, if a patient has symptoms more than 2 times a week, what
does that indicate?
A) Well-controlled asthma
B) Not well-controlled; needs step-up therapy
C) Mild intermittent asthma
D) No treatment needed
-ANSWER- B) Not well-controlled; needs step-up therapy
If a patient with asthma has both an inhaled beta agonist and an inhaled
corticosteroid, which one do they use first?
A) Corticosteroid first
B) Beta agonist first to open the airway, then the steroid
C) Either order is fine
D) Use them at different times of the day
-ANSWER- B) Beta agonist first to open the airway, then the steroid
What is the first-line treatment for mild intermittent asthma?
A) Low-dose inhaled corticosteroid
B) SABA (albuterol PRN)
C) LABA
D) Leukotriene receptor antagonist
-ANSWER- B) SABA (albuterol PRN)
Which patients are at risk for a fatal asthma attack?
A) Patients who have never been hospitalized
B) Patients with mild asthma
C) Patients who have been intubated or hospitalized for asthma
2
,D) Patients with exercise-induced asthma
-ANSWER- C) Patients who have been intubated or hospitalized for asthma
What is the cross-sensitivity between cephalosporins and penicillins?
A) Beta-lactam ring
B) Sulfa group
C) Aminoglycoside structure
D) Macrolide ring
-ANSWER- A) Beta-lactam ring
What drug improves the symptoms of GERD by increasing lower esophageal tone?
A) Omeprazole
B) Metoclopramide (Reglan)
C) Famotidine
D) Antacids
-ANSWER- B) Metoclopramide (Reglan)
Spiriva (tiotropium) is used for the treatment of what?
A) Asthma
B) COPD
C) Allergic rhinitis
D) Pneumonia
-ANSWER- B) COPD
If you prescribe betamethasone (inhaled corticosteroid), how do you instruct the
patient to use it?
A) Use it PRN
B) Use it every day and rinse mouth after use to prevent thrush
C) Use it only when symptoms are severe
D) Use it before exercise
-ANSWER- B) Use it every day and rinse mouth after use to prevent thrush
When someone is taking betaxolol ophthalmic drops, what do we need to watch
out for?
A) Hypertension
B) Hypotension and bradycardia
C) Tachycardia
D) Hyperglycemia
-ANSWER- B) Hypotension and bradycardia
3
, What is the rule with Flagyl (metronidazole)?
A) Take with food
B) Avoid alcohol
C) Take on an empty stomach
D) Avoid sunlight
-ANSWER- B) Avoid alcohol
What do we reserve fluoroquinolones for?
A) Mild infections
B) CAP in patients with comorbidities
C) Viral infections
D) Prophylaxis
-ANSWER- B) CAP in patients with comorbidities
What are the black box warnings for fluoroquinolones?
A) Hepatotoxicity
B) Spontaneous tendon rupture
C) Nephrotoxicity
D) Cardiotoxicity
-ANSWER- B) Spontaneous tendon rupture
A patient taking clindamycin develops frequent diarrhea. What is the likely
diagnosis?
A) Viral gastroenteritis
B) Pseudomembranous colitis (C. diff)
C) Food poisoning
D) Irritable bowel syndrome
-ANSWER- B) Pseudomembranous colitis (C. diff)
G6PD deficiency can trigger anemia when exposed to:
A) Penicillins
B) Sulfonamides and fava beans
C) Tetracyclines
D) Macrolides
-ANSWER- B) Sulfonamides and fava beans
Can tetracyclines be used in pregnant women or those with renal dysfunction?
A) Yes, they are safe
B) No, but they can be used in adolescents whose teeth are already developed
C) Yes, in all populations
4
