NCLEX-RN Maternal-Newborn Nursing
Exam 3 Practice Questions And Correct
Answers (Verified Answers) Plus
Rationales 2026 Q&A Instant Download
Pdf
1. A pregnant client at 32 weeks’ gestation reports painless vaginal bleeding.
Which condition should the nurse suspect?
A. Placental abruption
B. Placenta previa
C. Preterm labor
D. Uterine rupture
Answer: Placenta previa
Rationale: Placenta previa occurs when the placenta implants over or near the
cervical opening and commonly presents with painless bright-red vaginal
bleeding. Vaginal examinations should be avoided until placenta location is
confirmed.
2. A nurse is caring for a client experiencing placental abruption. Which
assessment finding requires immediate attention?
,A. Mild abdominal discomfort
B. Increased fetal movement
C. Rigid, board-like abdomen with uterine tenderness
D. Occasional irregular contractions
Answer: Rigid, board-like abdomen with uterine tenderness
Rationale: Placental abruption involves premature separation of the placenta
and may cause concealed bleeding, uterine rigidity, and fetal compromise
requiring immediate intervention.
3. Which finding is expected during the first trimester of pregnancy?
A. Decreased urination
B. Nausea and vomiting
C. Increased blood pressure
D. Decreased breast tenderness
Answer: Nausea and vomiting
Rationale: Hormonal changes, especially increased human chorionic
gonadotropin (hCG), commonly cause nausea and vomiting during early
pregnancy.
4. A nurse teaches a pregnant client about folic acid. Which statement indicates
understanding?
A. “It prevents gestational diabetes.”
B. “It decreases morning sickness.”
C. “It helps prevent neural tube defects in the fetus.”
D. “It increases fetal movement.”
Answer: It helps prevent neural tube defects in the fetus.
Rationale: Folic acid supplementation before conception and during pregnancy
reduces the risk of neural tube defects such as spina bifida.
,5. Which vaccine should a pregnant client receive during pregnancy?
A. Live attenuated influenza vaccine
B. Measles, mumps, and rubella vaccine
C. Inactivated influenza vaccine
D. Varicella vaccine
Answer: Inactivated influenza vaccine
Rationale: Inactivated influenza vaccine is recommended during pregnancy. Live
vaccines such as MMR and varicella are contraindicated during pregnancy.
6. A client at 36 weeks’ gestation has a blood pressure of 168/110 mmHg,
headache, and visual disturbances. Which condition is suspected?
A. Gestational diabetes
B. Hyperemesis gravidarum
C. Severe preeclampsia
D. Placenta previa
Answer: Severe preeclampsia
Rationale: Severe hypertension with neurological symptoms such as headache
and visual changes indicates severe preeclampsia and requires immediate
evaluation and management.
7. Which medication is commonly administered to prevent seizures in clients
with severe preeclampsia?
A. Oxytocin
B. Terbutaline
C. Magnesium sulfate
D. Methylergonovine
, Answer: Magnesium sulfate
Rationale: Magnesium sulfate is used for seizure prophylaxis in clients with
preeclampsia and for treatment of eclamptic seizures.
8. A nurse caring for a client receiving magnesium sulfate should monitor for
which adverse effect?
A. Hypertension
B. Increased reflexes
C. Decreased deep tendon reflexes
D. Tachycardia
Answer: Decreased deep tendon reflexes
Rationale: Magnesium toxicity causes CNS depression, including decreased deep
tendon reflexes, respiratory depression, and decreased urine output.
9. Which finding indicates a positive pregnancy test?
A. Increased estrogen levels
B. Decreased progesterone
C. Detection of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
D. Increased prolactin levels
Answer: Detection of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
Rationale: Pregnancy tests detect hCG, which is produced after implantation by
the developing placenta.
10. The nurse explains that quickening refers to:
A. Cervical dilation
B. Placental separation
Exam 3 Practice Questions And Correct
Answers (Verified Answers) Plus
Rationales 2026 Q&A Instant Download
1. A pregnant client at 32 weeks’ gestation reports painless vaginal bleeding.
Which condition should the nurse suspect?
A. Placental abruption
B. Placenta previa
C. Preterm labor
D. Uterine rupture
Answer: Placenta previa
Rationale: Placenta previa occurs when the placenta implants over or near the
cervical opening and commonly presents with painless bright-red vaginal
bleeding. Vaginal examinations should be avoided until placenta location is
confirmed.
2. A nurse is caring for a client experiencing placental abruption. Which
assessment finding requires immediate attention?
,A. Mild abdominal discomfort
B. Increased fetal movement
C. Rigid, board-like abdomen with uterine tenderness
D. Occasional irregular contractions
Answer: Rigid, board-like abdomen with uterine tenderness
Rationale: Placental abruption involves premature separation of the placenta
and may cause concealed bleeding, uterine rigidity, and fetal compromise
requiring immediate intervention.
3. Which finding is expected during the first trimester of pregnancy?
A. Decreased urination
B. Nausea and vomiting
C. Increased blood pressure
D. Decreased breast tenderness
Answer: Nausea and vomiting
Rationale: Hormonal changes, especially increased human chorionic
gonadotropin (hCG), commonly cause nausea and vomiting during early
pregnancy.
4. A nurse teaches a pregnant client about folic acid. Which statement indicates
understanding?
A. “It prevents gestational diabetes.”
B. “It decreases morning sickness.”
C. “It helps prevent neural tube defects in the fetus.”
D. “It increases fetal movement.”
Answer: It helps prevent neural tube defects in the fetus.
Rationale: Folic acid supplementation before conception and during pregnancy
reduces the risk of neural tube defects such as spina bifida.
,5. Which vaccine should a pregnant client receive during pregnancy?
A. Live attenuated influenza vaccine
B. Measles, mumps, and rubella vaccine
C. Inactivated influenza vaccine
D. Varicella vaccine
Answer: Inactivated influenza vaccine
Rationale: Inactivated influenza vaccine is recommended during pregnancy. Live
vaccines such as MMR and varicella are contraindicated during pregnancy.
6. A client at 36 weeks’ gestation has a blood pressure of 168/110 mmHg,
headache, and visual disturbances. Which condition is suspected?
A. Gestational diabetes
B. Hyperemesis gravidarum
C. Severe preeclampsia
D. Placenta previa
Answer: Severe preeclampsia
Rationale: Severe hypertension with neurological symptoms such as headache
and visual changes indicates severe preeclampsia and requires immediate
evaluation and management.
7. Which medication is commonly administered to prevent seizures in clients
with severe preeclampsia?
A. Oxytocin
B. Terbutaline
C. Magnesium sulfate
D. Methylergonovine
, Answer: Magnesium sulfate
Rationale: Magnesium sulfate is used for seizure prophylaxis in clients with
preeclampsia and for treatment of eclamptic seizures.
8. A nurse caring for a client receiving magnesium sulfate should monitor for
which adverse effect?
A. Hypertension
B. Increased reflexes
C. Decreased deep tendon reflexes
D. Tachycardia
Answer: Decreased deep tendon reflexes
Rationale: Magnesium toxicity causes CNS depression, including decreased deep
tendon reflexes, respiratory depression, and decreased urine output.
9. Which finding indicates a positive pregnancy test?
A. Increased estrogen levels
B. Decreased progesterone
C. Detection of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
D. Increased prolactin levels
Answer: Detection of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
Rationale: Pregnancy tests detect hCG, which is produced after implantation by
the developing placenta.
10. The nurse explains that quickening refers to:
A. Cervical dilation
B. Placental separation
