BOC Blood Bank Exam
(2025-2026)
Question and Answers
Expert Verified
(With A+ Grades Guarantee)
,b. 12.5 g/dL BLOOD PRODUCTS
All donors, regardless of sex, requires a minimum 1. The minimum hemoglobin concentration in a fingerstick from a male blood donor
hemoglobin of 12.5 g/dL. The value must not be performed is:
on an earlobe stick. a. 12.0 g/dL (120 g/L)
b. 12.5 g/dL (125 g/L)
c. 13.5 g/dL (135 g/L)
d. 15.0 g/dL (150 g/L)
c. history of jaundice of uncertain cause 2. A cause for permanent deferral of blood donation is:
a. diabetes
Jaundice is a sign of liver impairment, which might be due b. residence in an endemic malaria region
to HBV or HCV. Infection with HBV and HCV is a cause for c. history of jaundice of uncertain cause
indefinite deferral. d. history of therapeutic rabies vaccine
c. 22 year old college students who has a temperature 3. Which of the following prospective donors would be accepted for donation?
99.2F and states that he feels well, but is nervous about a. 32 year old woman who received a transfusion in a complicated delivery 5
donating. months previously.
b. 19 year old sailor who has been stateside for 9 months and stopped taking his
The receipt of blood products is a 6-month deferral, the anti-malarial medication 9 months previously.
deferral for travel to areas endemic for malaria is 12 c. 22 year old college students who has a temperature 99.2F and states that he
months regardless of antimalarial prophylaxis, and a feels well, but is nervous about donating.
person taking antibiotics may have bactermia. The d. 45 year old woman who has just recovered from a bladder infection and is still
requirement for temperature is not over 99.5F. taking antibiotics.
d. confirmed positive test for HBsAg 10 years previously. 4. Which one of the following constitutes permanent rejection status of a donor?
a. a tatoos 5 months previously
A positive test for HbsAg at any time is an indefinite b. recent close contact with a patient with viral hepatitis
deferral. c. 2 units of blood transfused 4 months previously
d. confirmed positive test for HBsAg 10 years previously.
b. spontaneous abortion at 2 months of pregnancy, 3 5. According to AABB standards, which of the following donors may be accepted as
months previously a blood donor?
a. traveled to an area endemic for malaria 9 months previously.
A woman who had a spontaneous abortion at 2 months of b. spontaneous abortion at 2 months of pregnancy, 3 months previously
pregnancy, 3 months previously would be acceptable. A c. resides with a known hepatitis patient.
donor is acceptable if she has not been pregnant in the d. received a blood transfusion 22 week previously
previous 6 weeks.
b. 1 6. Below are the results of the history obtained from a prospective female blood
donor:
The Hct must be >38%. A donor may be 16 unless state Age: 16
law differs. Temperature must not exceed 99.5F, blood Temperature: 99.0F
pressure must be <180 mm Hg systolic and <100 mm Hg Hct: 36%
diastolic, pulse 50-100 unless an athlete (which can be History: tetanus toxoid immunization 1 week previously
lower). Toxoids and vaccines from synthetic or killed How many of the above results excludes this donor from giving blood for a routin
sources have no deferral. transfusions?
a. none
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
a. 150 x 10^3/uL (150 x 10^9/L) 7. For apheresis donors who donate platelets more frequently than every 4 weeks,
a platelet count must be performed prior to the procedure and be at least:
The minimum platelet count required for frequent repeat
donors is 150x10^3/uL. A platelet ount is not required prior a. 150 x 10^3/uL (150 x 10^9/L)
to the first donation or if the interval between donations is b. 200 x 10^3/uL (200 x 10^9/L)
at least 4 weeks. c. 250 x 10^3/uL (250 x 10^9/L)
d. 300 x 10^3/uL (300 x 10^9/L)
d. PVP iodine complex 8. Prior to blood donation, the intended venipucture site must be cleaned with a
The scrub must use iodine, eg, PVP iodine complex. scrub solution containing:
Donors who are sensitive to iodine can have the area
cleaned with a preparation of 2% chlorhexidine and 70% a. hypochlorite
isopropyl alcohol. b. isopropyl alcohol
c. 10% acetone
d. PVP iodine complex
,d. serological test for syphilis 9. All donor blood testing must include:
Testing for syphilis was the first mandated donor screening a. complete Rh phenotyping
test for infectious disease and is still part of donor b. anti-CMV testing
screening. c. direct antiglobulin test
d. serological test for syphilis
b. cooled towards 20-24C 10. During the preaparation of platelet Concentrates from Whole Blood, the blood
should be:
Platelets are prepared and stored at 20-24C for optimum
function. a. cooled towards 6C.
b. cooled towards 20-24C
c. warmed to 37C
d. heated to 57C
b. HBsAg 11. The most common cause of posttransfusion hepatitis can be detected in donors
by testing for:
The most common ostransfusion hepatitis is hepatitis B.
The estimated risk of transmission is 1:220,000 units a. anti-HCV
transfused. The risk of hepatitis C transmission is b. HBsAg
1:1,800,000 units. Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) is c. anti-HAV IgM
required donor test for detection of acute or chronic HBV d. anti-Hbe
infection.
b. anti-HIV-1 12. The Western blot is a confimatory test for the presence of:
a. CMV antibody
Western blot uses purified HIV proteins to confirm b. anti-HIV-1
reactivity in samples whose screening test for anti-HIV is c. HBsAg
positive. d. serum protein abnormalities
b. anti-HIV 1,2 13. The test that is currently used to detect donors who are infected with the AIDS
virus is:
The causative agent for AIDS is the human
immunodeficiency virus types 1 and 2. a. anti-Hbc
b. anti-HIV 1,2
c. HBsAg
d. ALT
d. enzyme-labeled immunosorbent assay (ELISA) 14. A commonly used screening method for anti-HIV-1 detection is:
The ELISA method is a very sensitive method employed to a. latex agglutination
screen donors for markers of transfusion-transmitted b. radioimmunoassay (RIA)
viruses. c. thin-layer-chromatography (TLC)
d. enzyme-labeled immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
c. restore 2,3-DPG and ATp to normal levels 15. Rejuvenation of a unit of Red Blood Cells is a method used to:
Rejuvenation of RBCs uses additives to restore or a. remove antibody attached to RBC's
enhance 2,3-DPG and ATP levels. b. inactivate viruses and bacteria
c. restore 2,3-DPG and ATP to normal levels
d. filter blood clots and other debris
d. the original date of the unsplit unit 16. A unit of packed cells is split into 2 aliquots under closed sterile conditions at 8
AM. The expiration time for each aliquot is now:
Sterile docking devices allow entry into donor units without
affecting the expiration date of the product. a. 4 PM on the same day
b. 8 PM on the same day
c. 8 AM on the same day
d. the original date of the unsplit unit
d. 35 days 17. A unite of Red Blood Cells expiring in 35 days is split into 5 small aliquots using
a sterile pediatric quad set and a sterile connecting device. Each aliquot must be
Sterile docking devices allow entry into donor units without labeled as expiring in:
affecting the expiration date of the product.
a. 6 hours
b. 12 hours
c. 5 days
d. 35 days
, c. every 4 hours 18. When platelets are stored on a rotator set on an open bench top, the ambient
air temperature must be recorded:
If storage devices do not have automated temperature
recording, temperature must be manually monitored every a. once a day
4 hours. b. twice a day
c. every 4 hours
d. every hour
b. Fresh Frozen Plasma, -20C 19. Which of the following is the correct storage temperature for the component
listed?
Fresh Frozen plasma is stored at -18C or below for 12
months. a. Cryopreciptated AHF, 4C
b. Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP), -20C
c. Red Blood Cells, Frozen, -40C
d. Platelets, 37C
d. record the return and place the unit back into inventory. 20. A unit of Red Blood Cells is issued at 9:00 am. At 9:10 am the unit is returned to
the Blood Bank. The container has NOT been entered, but the unit has NOT been
Blood may be returned to the blood bank after issue refrigerated during the time span. The best course of action for the technologist is
provided that 1. the contianer has not been entered, 2. at to:
least 1 sealed segment is attached to the contianer, 3.
visual inspection of the unit is satisfacotry and a. culture the unit for bacterial contamination
documented, and 4. the unit has been maintained at the b. discard the unit if not used within 24 hours
appropriate storage or transport temperature. Studies have c. store the unit at room temperature
shown that refrigerated components retain an acceptable d. record the return and place the unit back into inventory
temperature of <10C for up to 30 minutes after removal
from the refrigerator.
a. -80C 21. The optimum storage temperature for Red Blood Cells, Frozen is:
red blood cells, frozen with 40% glycerol are stored at a. -80C
-65C or lower. b. -20C
c. -12C
d. 4C
d. 4C 22. The optimum storage temperature for Red Blood Cells is:
Red Blood Cells are stored at 1-6C. a. -80C
b. -20C
c. -12C
d. 4C
b. 24 23. If the seal is entered on a unit of Red Blood Cells stored at 1C to 6C, what is the
maximum allowable storage period, in hours?
If the seal is broken during the processing, components
are considered to be prepared in an open system, rather a. 6
than a closed system. the expiration time for Red Blood b. 24
Cells in an open system is 24 hours. c. 48
d. 72
a. -20C 24. The optimum storage temperature for cryoprecipitated AHF is:
Cryoprecipitated AHF is stored at -18C or lower. a. -20C
b. -12C
c. 4C
d. 22C
a. 4 hours 25. Cryoprecipitated AHF must be transfused within what period of time following
thawing and pooling?
Cryoprecipitate must be transfused within 4 hours of
pooling. a. 4 hours
b. 8 hours
c. 12 hours
d. 24 hours
(2025-2026)
Question and Answers
Expert Verified
(With A+ Grades Guarantee)
,b. 12.5 g/dL BLOOD PRODUCTS
All donors, regardless of sex, requires a minimum 1. The minimum hemoglobin concentration in a fingerstick from a male blood donor
hemoglobin of 12.5 g/dL. The value must not be performed is:
on an earlobe stick. a. 12.0 g/dL (120 g/L)
b. 12.5 g/dL (125 g/L)
c. 13.5 g/dL (135 g/L)
d. 15.0 g/dL (150 g/L)
c. history of jaundice of uncertain cause 2. A cause for permanent deferral of blood donation is:
a. diabetes
Jaundice is a sign of liver impairment, which might be due b. residence in an endemic malaria region
to HBV or HCV. Infection with HBV and HCV is a cause for c. history of jaundice of uncertain cause
indefinite deferral. d. history of therapeutic rabies vaccine
c. 22 year old college students who has a temperature 3. Which of the following prospective donors would be accepted for donation?
99.2F and states that he feels well, but is nervous about a. 32 year old woman who received a transfusion in a complicated delivery 5
donating. months previously.
b. 19 year old sailor who has been stateside for 9 months and stopped taking his
The receipt of blood products is a 6-month deferral, the anti-malarial medication 9 months previously.
deferral for travel to areas endemic for malaria is 12 c. 22 year old college students who has a temperature 99.2F and states that he
months regardless of antimalarial prophylaxis, and a feels well, but is nervous about donating.
person taking antibiotics may have bactermia. The d. 45 year old woman who has just recovered from a bladder infection and is still
requirement for temperature is not over 99.5F. taking antibiotics.
d. confirmed positive test for HBsAg 10 years previously. 4. Which one of the following constitutes permanent rejection status of a donor?
a. a tatoos 5 months previously
A positive test for HbsAg at any time is an indefinite b. recent close contact with a patient with viral hepatitis
deferral. c. 2 units of blood transfused 4 months previously
d. confirmed positive test for HBsAg 10 years previously.
b. spontaneous abortion at 2 months of pregnancy, 3 5. According to AABB standards, which of the following donors may be accepted as
months previously a blood donor?
a. traveled to an area endemic for malaria 9 months previously.
A woman who had a spontaneous abortion at 2 months of b. spontaneous abortion at 2 months of pregnancy, 3 months previously
pregnancy, 3 months previously would be acceptable. A c. resides with a known hepatitis patient.
donor is acceptable if she has not been pregnant in the d. received a blood transfusion 22 week previously
previous 6 weeks.
b. 1 6. Below are the results of the history obtained from a prospective female blood
donor:
The Hct must be >38%. A donor may be 16 unless state Age: 16
law differs. Temperature must not exceed 99.5F, blood Temperature: 99.0F
pressure must be <180 mm Hg systolic and <100 mm Hg Hct: 36%
diastolic, pulse 50-100 unless an athlete (which can be History: tetanus toxoid immunization 1 week previously
lower). Toxoids and vaccines from synthetic or killed How many of the above results excludes this donor from giving blood for a routin
sources have no deferral. transfusions?
a. none
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
a. 150 x 10^3/uL (150 x 10^9/L) 7. For apheresis donors who donate platelets more frequently than every 4 weeks,
a platelet count must be performed prior to the procedure and be at least:
The minimum platelet count required for frequent repeat
donors is 150x10^3/uL. A platelet ount is not required prior a. 150 x 10^3/uL (150 x 10^9/L)
to the first donation or if the interval between donations is b. 200 x 10^3/uL (200 x 10^9/L)
at least 4 weeks. c. 250 x 10^3/uL (250 x 10^9/L)
d. 300 x 10^3/uL (300 x 10^9/L)
d. PVP iodine complex 8. Prior to blood donation, the intended venipucture site must be cleaned with a
The scrub must use iodine, eg, PVP iodine complex. scrub solution containing:
Donors who are sensitive to iodine can have the area
cleaned with a preparation of 2% chlorhexidine and 70% a. hypochlorite
isopropyl alcohol. b. isopropyl alcohol
c. 10% acetone
d. PVP iodine complex
,d. serological test for syphilis 9. All donor blood testing must include:
Testing for syphilis was the first mandated donor screening a. complete Rh phenotyping
test for infectious disease and is still part of donor b. anti-CMV testing
screening. c. direct antiglobulin test
d. serological test for syphilis
b. cooled towards 20-24C 10. During the preaparation of platelet Concentrates from Whole Blood, the blood
should be:
Platelets are prepared and stored at 20-24C for optimum
function. a. cooled towards 6C.
b. cooled towards 20-24C
c. warmed to 37C
d. heated to 57C
b. HBsAg 11. The most common cause of posttransfusion hepatitis can be detected in donors
by testing for:
The most common ostransfusion hepatitis is hepatitis B.
The estimated risk of transmission is 1:220,000 units a. anti-HCV
transfused. The risk of hepatitis C transmission is b. HBsAg
1:1,800,000 units. Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) is c. anti-HAV IgM
required donor test for detection of acute or chronic HBV d. anti-Hbe
infection.
b. anti-HIV-1 12. The Western blot is a confimatory test for the presence of:
a. CMV antibody
Western blot uses purified HIV proteins to confirm b. anti-HIV-1
reactivity in samples whose screening test for anti-HIV is c. HBsAg
positive. d. serum protein abnormalities
b. anti-HIV 1,2 13. The test that is currently used to detect donors who are infected with the AIDS
virus is:
The causative agent for AIDS is the human
immunodeficiency virus types 1 and 2. a. anti-Hbc
b. anti-HIV 1,2
c. HBsAg
d. ALT
d. enzyme-labeled immunosorbent assay (ELISA) 14. A commonly used screening method for anti-HIV-1 detection is:
The ELISA method is a very sensitive method employed to a. latex agglutination
screen donors for markers of transfusion-transmitted b. radioimmunoassay (RIA)
viruses. c. thin-layer-chromatography (TLC)
d. enzyme-labeled immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
c. restore 2,3-DPG and ATp to normal levels 15. Rejuvenation of a unit of Red Blood Cells is a method used to:
Rejuvenation of RBCs uses additives to restore or a. remove antibody attached to RBC's
enhance 2,3-DPG and ATP levels. b. inactivate viruses and bacteria
c. restore 2,3-DPG and ATP to normal levels
d. filter blood clots and other debris
d. the original date of the unsplit unit 16. A unit of packed cells is split into 2 aliquots under closed sterile conditions at 8
AM. The expiration time for each aliquot is now:
Sterile docking devices allow entry into donor units without
affecting the expiration date of the product. a. 4 PM on the same day
b. 8 PM on the same day
c. 8 AM on the same day
d. the original date of the unsplit unit
d. 35 days 17. A unite of Red Blood Cells expiring in 35 days is split into 5 small aliquots using
a sterile pediatric quad set and a sterile connecting device. Each aliquot must be
Sterile docking devices allow entry into donor units without labeled as expiring in:
affecting the expiration date of the product.
a. 6 hours
b. 12 hours
c. 5 days
d. 35 days
, c. every 4 hours 18. When platelets are stored on a rotator set on an open bench top, the ambient
air temperature must be recorded:
If storage devices do not have automated temperature
recording, temperature must be manually monitored every a. once a day
4 hours. b. twice a day
c. every 4 hours
d. every hour
b. Fresh Frozen Plasma, -20C 19. Which of the following is the correct storage temperature for the component
listed?
Fresh Frozen plasma is stored at -18C or below for 12
months. a. Cryopreciptated AHF, 4C
b. Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP), -20C
c. Red Blood Cells, Frozen, -40C
d. Platelets, 37C
d. record the return and place the unit back into inventory. 20. A unit of Red Blood Cells is issued at 9:00 am. At 9:10 am the unit is returned to
the Blood Bank. The container has NOT been entered, but the unit has NOT been
Blood may be returned to the blood bank after issue refrigerated during the time span. The best course of action for the technologist is
provided that 1. the contianer has not been entered, 2. at to:
least 1 sealed segment is attached to the contianer, 3.
visual inspection of the unit is satisfacotry and a. culture the unit for bacterial contamination
documented, and 4. the unit has been maintained at the b. discard the unit if not used within 24 hours
appropriate storage or transport temperature. Studies have c. store the unit at room temperature
shown that refrigerated components retain an acceptable d. record the return and place the unit back into inventory
temperature of <10C for up to 30 minutes after removal
from the refrigerator.
a. -80C 21. The optimum storage temperature for Red Blood Cells, Frozen is:
red blood cells, frozen with 40% glycerol are stored at a. -80C
-65C or lower. b. -20C
c. -12C
d. 4C
d. 4C 22. The optimum storage temperature for Red Blood Cells is:
Red Blood Cells are stored at 1-6C. a. -80C
b. -20C
c. -12C
d. 4C
b. 24 23. If the seal is entered on a unit of Red Blood Cells stored at 1C to 6C, what is the
maximum allowable storage period, in hours?
If the seal is broken during the processing, components
are considered to be prepared in an open system, rather a. 6
than a closed system. the expiration time for Red Blood b. 24
Cells in an open system is 24 hours. c. 48
d. 72
a. -20C 24. The optimum storage temperature for cryoprecipitated AHF is:
Cryoprecipitated AHF is stored at -18C or lower. a. -20C
b. -12C
c. 4C
d. 22C
a. 4 hours 25. Cryoprecipitated AHF must be transfused within what period of time following
thawing and pooling?
Cryoprecipitate must be transfused within 4 hours of
pooling. a. 4 hours
b. 8 hours
c. 12 hours
d. 24 hours
