CJE BENCHMARK EXAM #2
|VERIFIED QUESTIONS &
ANSWERS WITH
LATEST MOCK PRACTICE SET
250 Questions with Answers and Detailed Rationales
100 PERCENT GUARANTEED PASS
INSTANT DOWNLOAD ANSWERS INCLUDED
IMPORTANCE OF THIS DOCUMENT
This comprehensive examination preparation guide has been meticulously developed to help you succeed in the
CJE BENCHMARK EXAM #2 |VERIFIED QUESTIONS & ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES|NCLEX-STYLE
NURSING PRACTICE UPDATED FOR 2026. It contains 250 carefully selected questions that reflect the most
current exam content and testing strategies. Each question is accompanied by a correct answer and a detailed
rationale that explains the underlying pathophysiology, pharmacology, or clinical reasoning.
Self-Assessment – Test your knowledge and Exam Preparation – Familiarize yourself with the
identify areas requiring further question format and content
study areas
Concept Reinforcement – Deepen your Confidence Building – Develop test-taking
understanding through strategies and reduce
evidence-based exam anxiety
rationales
Time Management – Practice answering
questions under simulated
exam conditions
Review Summary 250 Questions
Foundations - Application - CJE Benchmark 2 & WITH Rationales Nclex-style Nursing Updated FOR 2026
Advanced Medical-surgical Nursing Pharmacology AND Critical CARE Graduate Nursing
All answers with rationales
,Table of Contents
Section A - Management OF CARE Section B - Safety AND Infection
Questions 1 to 63 Control
Questions 64 to 126
Section C - Health Promotion AND Section D - Psychosocial Integrity
Maintenance Questions 190 to 250
Questions 127 to 189
,Section A - Management OF CARE
Q1.
A patient with cirrhosis and refractory ascites develops acute kidney injury. Urine sodium
is <10 mEq/L, fractional excretion of sodium <1%. Which hemodynamic profile is most
consistent with this presentation?
A. Increased cardiac output, decreased B. Decreased cardiac output, increased
systemic vascular resistance, increased systemic vascular resistance, normal
portal pressure pulmonary artery wedge pressure
C. Normal cardiac output, increased D. Increased cardiac output, increased
systemic vascular resistance, decreased systemic vascular resistance, decreased
pulmonary artery wedge pressure central venous pressure
Correct: A - Increased cardiac output, decreased systemic vascular resistance, increased
portal pressure
Rationale:Hepatorenal syndrome presents with hyperdynamic circulation (increased CO) due
to splanchnic vasodilation and low SVR, leading to renal vasoconstriction. Option B suggests
cardiogenic shock; C suggests hypovolemic shock; D is inconsistent as SVR is low, not high.
Q2.
A patient on a heparin drip for pulmonary embolism has an aPTT of 45 seconds (control
30). The nurse notes a new left-sided weakness. Which intervention is most appropriate?
A. Administer protamine sulfate 1 mg per B. Stop the heparin infusion and obtain an
100 units of heparin estimated in system emergent CT scan without contrast
C. Administer recombinant tissue D. Give vitamin K 10 mg IV and fresh frozen
plasminogen activator (rtPA) 0.9 mg/kg IV plasma 15 mL/kg
Correct: B - Stop the heparin infusion and obtain an emergent CT scan without contrast
Rationale:Sudden focal neurological deficit on heparin suggests intracranial hemorrhage.
Heparin should be stopped immediately and CT obtained to confirm before any reversal.
Protamine is indicated only after confirmed hemorrhage. rtPA is contraindicated due to
anticoagulation. Vitamin K and FFP are for warfarin reversal.
Q3.
A patient with septic shock on norepinephrine (0.5 mcg/kg/min) has a BP of 85/50 mmHg,
MAP 62 mmHg, CVP 8 mmHg, ScvO2 65%, lactate 4 mmol/L. Which intervention should
the nurse question?
A. Titrate norepinephrine to achieve MAP 65 B. Administer 500 mL crystalloid bolus over
mmHg 15 minutes
Page 3
, Section A - Management OF CARE
C. Start dobutamine at 5 mcg/kg/min to D. Obtain blood cultures before starting
improve cardiac output broad-spectrum antibiotics
Correct: C - Start dobutamine at 5 mcg/kg/min to improve cardiac output
Rationale:ScvO2 >70% suggests adequate oxygen delivery; adding dobutamine may
increase myocardial oxygen demand without benefit and can cause hypotension. Current
guidelines prioritize fluid resuscitation and vasopressors to MAP 65. Cultures before
antibiotics are standard. The patient is still hypotensive, so further fluids and vasopressor
titration are appropriate.
Q4.
A patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is on volume-controlled
ventilation with plateau pressure 32 cm H2O, PEEP 18 cm H2O, FiO2 0.8, and PaO2 70
mmHg. Which change reflects lung-protective ventilation strategy?
A. Increase PEEP to 24 cm H2O to improve B. Switch to pressure-controlled ventilation
oxygenation to lower plateau pressure
C. Decrease tidal volume from 6 mL/kg to 4 D. Increase FiO2 to 1.0 to achieve PaO2
mL/kg PBW and accept permissive >80 mmHg
hypercapnia
Correct: C - Decrease tidal volume from 6 mL/kg to 4 mL/kg PBW and accept permissive
hypercapnia
Rationale:Lung-protective ventilation targets plateau pressure <30 cm H2O and tidal volume
4-6 mL/kg PBW. Plateau of 32 is high; decreasing VT reduces volutrauma. Permissive
hypercapnia is acceptable. Higher PEEP may worsen overdistention. Pressure-controlled
ventilation does not guarantee lower plateau pressure. FiO2 of 1.0 increases oxygen toxicity
risk.
Q5.
A patient with diabetic ketoacidosis has serum glucose 450 mg/dL, pH 7.1, bicarbonate 10
mEq/L, anion gap 20, and potassium 5.5 mEq/L. After starting IV fluids and insulin, which
laboratory finding indicates a potential complication?
A. Serum glucose decreasing by 60 mg/dL B. Serum potassium dropping to 3.2 mEq/L
per hour after 2 hours
C. Anion gap decreasing to 16 after 4 hours D. Serum bicarbonate rising to 14 mEq/L
after 6 hours
Correct: B - Serum potassium dropping to 3.2 mEq/L after 2 hours
Page 4
|VERIFIED QUESTIONS &
ANSWERS WITH
LATEST MOCK PRACTICE SET
250 Questions with Answers and Detailed Rationales
100 PERCENT GUARANTEED PASS
INSTANT DOWNLOAD ANSWERS INCLUDED
IMPORTANCE OF THIS DOCUMENT
This comprehensive examination preparation guide has been meticulously developed to help you succeed in the
CJE BENCHMARK EXAM #2 |VERIFIED QUESTIONS & ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES|NCLEX-STYLE
NURSING PRACTICE UPDATED FOR 2026. It contains 250 carefully selected questions that reflect the most
current exam content and testing strategies. Each question is accompanied by a correct answer and a detailed
rationale that explains the underlying pathophysiology, pharmacology, or clinical reasoning.
Self-Assessment – Test your knowledge and Exam Preparation – Familiarize yourself with the
identify areas requiring further question format and content
study areas
Concept Reinforcement – Deepen your Confidence Building – Develop test-taking
understanding through strategies and reduce
evidence-based exam anxiety
rationales
Time Management – Practice answering
questions under simulated
exam conditions
Review Summary 250 Questions
Foundations - Application - CJE Benchmark 2 & WITH Rationales Nclex-style Nursing Updated FOR 2026
Advanced Medical-surgical Nursing Pharmacology AND Critical CARE Graduate Nursing
All answers with rationales
,Table of Contents
Section A - Management OF CARE Section B - Safety AND Infection
Questions 1 to 63 Control
Questions 64 to 126
Section C - Health Promotion AND Section D - Psychosocial Integrity
Maintenance Questions 190 to 250
Questions 127 to 189
,Section A - Management OF CARE
Q1.
A patient with cirrhosis and refractory ascites develops acute kidney injury. Urine sodium
is <10 mEq/L, fractional excretion of sodium <1%. Which hemodynamic profile is most
consistent with this presentation?
A. Increased cardiac output, decreased B. Decreased cardiac output, increased
systemic vascular resistance, increased systemic vascular resistance, normal
portal pressure pulmonary artery wedge pressure
C. Normal cardiac output, increased D. Increased cardiac output, increased
systemic vascular resistance, decreased systemic vascular resistance, decreased
pulmonary artery wedge pressure central venous pressure
Correct: A - Increased cardiac output, decreased systemic vascular resistance, increased
portal pressure
Rationale:Hepatorenal syndrome presents with hyperdynamic circulation (increased CO) due
to splanchnic vasodilation and low SVR, leading to renal vasoconstriction. Option B suggests
cardiogenic shock; C suggests hypovolemic shock; D is inconsistent as SVR is low, not high.
Q2.
A patient on a heparin drip for pulmonary embolism has an aPTT of 45 seconds (control
30). The nurse notes a new left-sided weakness. Which intervention is most appropriate?
A. Administer protamine sulfate 1 mg per B. Stop the heparin infusion and obtain an
100 units of heparin estimated in system emergent CT scan without contrast
C. Administer recombinant tissue D. Give vitamin K 10 mg IV and fresh frozen
plasminogen activator (rtPA) 0.9 mg/kg IV plasma 15 mL/kg
Correct: B - Stop the heparin infusion and obtain an emergent CT scan without contrast
Rationale:Sudden focal neurological deficit on heparin suggests intracranial hemorrhage.
Heparin should be stopped immediately and CT obtained to confirm before any reversal.
Protamine is indicated only after confirmed hemorrhage. rtPA is contraindicated due to
anticoagulation. Vitamin K and FFP are for warfarin reversal.
Q3.
A patient with septic shock on norepinephrine (0.5 mcg/kg/min) has a BP of 85/50 mmHg,
MAP 62 mmHg, CVP 8 mmHg, ScvO2 65%, lactate 4 mmol/L. Which intervention should
the nurse question?
A. Titrate norepinephrine to achieve MAP 65 B. Administer 500 mL crystalloid bolus over
mmHg 15 minutes
Page 3
, Section A - Management OF CARE
C. Start dobutamine at 5 mcg/kg/min to D. Obtain blood cultures before starting
improve cardiac output broad-spectrum antibiotics
Correct: C - Start dobutamine at 5 mcg/kg/min to improve cardiac output
Rationale:ScvO2 >70% suggests adequate oxygen delivery; adding dobutamine may
increase myocardial oxygen demand without benefit and can cause hypotension. Current
guidelines prioritize fluid resuscitation and vasopressors to MAP 65. Cultures before
antibiotics are standard. The patient is still hypotensive, so further fluids and vasopressor
titration are appropriate.
Q4.
A patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is on volume-controlled
ventilation with plateau pressure 32 cm H2O, PEEP 18 cm H2O, FiO2 0.8, and PaO2 70
mmHg. Which change reflects lung-protective ventilation strategy?
A. Increase PEEP to 24 cm H2O to improve B. Switch to pressure-controlled ventilation
oxygenation to lower plateau pressure
C. Decrease tidal volume from 6 mL/kg to 4 D. Increase FiO2 to 1.0 to achieve PaO2
mL/kg PBW and accept permissive >80 mmHg
hypercapnia
Correct: C - Decrease tidal volume from 6 mL/kg to 4 mL/kg PBW and accept permissive
hypercapnia
Rationale:Lung-protective ventilation targets plateau pressure <30 cm H2O and tidal volume
4-6 mL/kg PBW. Plateau of 32 is high; decreasing VT reduces volutrauma. Permissive
hypercapnia is acceptable. Higher PEEP may worsen overdistention. Pressure-controlled
ventilation does not guarantee lower plateau pressure. FiO2 of 1.0 increases oxygen toxicity
risk.
Q5.
A patient with diabetic ketoacidosis has serum glucose 450 mg/dL, pH 7.1, bicarbonate 10
mEq/L, anion gap 20, and potassium 5.5 mEq/L. After starting IV fluids and insulin, which
laboratory finding indicates a potential complication?
A. Serum glucose decreasing by 60 mg/dL B. Serum potassium dropping to 3.2 mEq/L
per hour after 2 hours
C. Anion gap decreasing to 16 after 4 hours D. Serum bicarbonate rising to 14 mEq/L
after 6 hours
Correct: B - Serum potassium dropping to 3.2 mEq/L after 2 hours
Page 4
