NSG120 Pathophysiology Final Exam
OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT - EXAM
NSG120 - Final Exam
Nursing Pathophysiology Guide
(Herzing University)
Questions & Answers
Verified Grade A Solutions
2026/2027 Update
A+ Verified | 2026/2027 Edition
Passing Score: 80% Baccalaureate Nursing Pathophysiology
COVER PAGE - 1
, SECTIONS COVERED
Section 1: Cellular Injury, Inflammation & Immune Mechanisms (Q 1-10)
Section 2: Fluid, Electrolyte & Acid-Base Alterations (Q 11-20)
Section 3: Cardiovascular & Respiratory Pathophysiology (Q 21-30)
Section 4: Endocrine, Renal & Gastrointestinal Pathophysiology (Q 31-40)
Section 5: Neurologic, Musculoskeletal & Hematologic Pathophysiology (Q 41-50)
This examination assesses baccalaureate-level pathophysiology knowledge for NSG120. Each question carries 1 mark. Passing score is
80%.
Section 1: Cellular Injury, Inflammation & Immune Mechanisms
Question 1
A 68-year-old man with prolonged hypotension after trauma develops rising creatinine and oliguria. Renal biopsy later shows
necrosis of tubular epithelial cells with intact basement membranes. Which type of cellular injury best explains this finding?
A. Irreversible coagulative necrosis of tubular epithelium
B. Reversible hypoxic injury limited to cellular swelling
C. Apoptosis triggered solely by receptor-mediated pathways
D. Caseous necrosis secondary to granulomatous inflammation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Prolonged ischemia produces coagulative necrosis in solid organs such as kidney, characterized by preserved tissue architecture with anucleate
eosinophilic cells. Intact basement membranes allow potential tubular regeneration if the patient survives. Pure cellular swelling is reversible; caseous
necrosis is typical of tuberculosis.
Question 2
A 45-year-old woman has a breast biopsy showing cells with increased nuclear-to-cytoplasmic ratio, hyperchromasia, and loss of
normal polarity, yet the basement membrane remains intact. Which pathologic process is present?
A. Metaplasia of ductal epithelium
B. Dysplasia confined within the epithelial layer
C. Invasive carcinoma breaching the basement membrane
D. Hypertrophy of myoepithelial cells only
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Dysplasia is disordered growth with atypical cytologic features that remains confined by an intact basement membrane. Once the basement membrane is
breached, the process is termed invasive carcinoma. Metaplasia is replacement by another differentiated cell type; hypertrophy is increase in cell size.
Question 3
A patient with a large abscess has fever, leukocytosis, and elevated C-reactive protein. Local tissue examination shows abundant
neutrophils, liquefied debris, and surrounding fibrosis. Which inflammatory pattern and chemical mediator pairing is most accurate?
A. Chronic granulomatous inflammation driven mainly by interferon-gamma
B. Serous inflammation mediated exclusively by histamine from mast cells
C. Acute suppurative inflammation with neutrophil proteases and free radicals
D. Fibrinous inflammation caused solely by platelet-derived growth factor
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Abscesses represent acute suppurative (purulent) inflammation dominated by neutrophils whose enzymes and reactive oxygen species liquefy tissue. CRP
and fever reflect the acute-phase response. Granulomatous inflammation is macrophage-driven and chronic; serous and fibrinous patterns lack frank pus.
OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT - EXAM
NSG120 - Final Exam
Nursing Pathophysiology Guide
(Herzing University)
Questions & Answers
Verified Grade A Solutions
2026/2027 Update
A+ Verified | 2026/2027 Edition
Passing Score: 80% Baccalaureate Nursing Pathophysiology
COVER PAGE - 1
, SECTIONS COVERED
Section 1: Cellular Injury, Inflammation & Immune Mechanisms (Q 1-10)
Section 2: Fluid, Electrolyte & Acid-Base Alterations (Q 11-20)
Section 3: Cardiovascular & Respiratory Pathophysiology (Q 21-30)
Section 4: Endocrine, Renal & Gastrointestinal Pathophysiology (Q 31-40)
Section 5: Neurologic, Musculoskeletal & Hematologic Pathophysiology (Q 41-50)
This examination assesses baccalaureate-level pathophysiology knowledge for NSG120. Each question carries 1 mark. Passing score is
80%.
Section 1: Cellular Injury, Inflammation & Immune Mechanisms
Question 1
A 68-year-old man with prolonged hypotension after trauma develops rising creatinine and oliguria. Renal biopsy later shows
necrosis of tubular epithelial cells with intact basement membranes. Which type of cellular injury best explains this finding?
A. Irreversible coagulative necrosis of tubular epithelium
B. Reversible hypoxic injury limited to cellular swelling
C. Apoptosis triggered solely by receptor-mediated pathways
D. Caseous necrosis secondary to granulomatous inflammation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Prolonged ischemia produces coagulative necrosis in solid organs such as kidney, characterized by preserved tissue architecture with anucleate
eosinophilic cells. Intact basement membranes allow potential tubular regeneration if the patient survives. Pure cellular swelling is reversible; caseous
necrosis is typical of tuberculosis.
Question 2
A 45-year-old woman has a breast biopsy showing cells with increased nuclear-to-cytoplasmic ratio, hyperchromasia, and loss of
normal polarity, yet the basement membrane remains intact. Which pathologic process is present?
A. Metaplasia of ductal epithelium
B. Dysplasia confined within the epithelial layer
C. Invasive carcinoma breaching the basement membrane
D. Hypertrophy of myoepithelial cells only
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Dysplasia is disordered growth with atypical cytologic features that remains confined by an intact basement membrane. Once the basement membrane is
breached, the process is termed invasive carcinoma. Metaplasia is replacement by another differentiated cell type; hypertrophy is increase in cell size.
Question 3
A patient with a large abscess has fever, leukocytosis, and elevated C-reactive protein. Local tissue examination shows abundant
neutrophils, liquefied debris, and surrounding fibrosis. Which inflammatory pattern and chemical mediator pairing is most accurate?
A. Chronic granulomatous inflammation driven mainly by interferon-gamma
B. Serous inflammation mediated exclusively by histamine from mast cells
C. Acute suppurative inflammation with neutrophil proteases and free radicals
D. Fibrinous inflammation caused solely by platelet-derived growth factor
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Abscesses represent acute suppurative (purulent) inflammation dominated by neutrophils whose enzymes and reactive oxygen species liquefy tissue. CRP
and fever reflect the acute-phase response. Granulomatous inflammation is macrophage-driven and chronic; serous and fibrinous patterns lack frank pus.
