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NCLEX-RN Basic Care & Comfort Questions
And Well Graded Solutions With Rationales
Updated 2026-2027
1. A client with a nasogastric tube is prescribed intermittent enteral feedings. Which
position should the nurse place the client in during the feeding?
A) Supine position
B) Left lateral position
C) High-Fowler's position
D) Trendelenburg position
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: High-Fowler's position (45–90 degrees) should be maintained during
and for 1 hour after enteral feedings to prevent aspiration. Supine (A) increases
aspiration risk. Left lateral (B) is not recommended. Trendelenburg (D)
increases reflux risk.
2. A client with an indwelling urinary catheter reports discomfort and a sensation of
needing to urinate. Which action should the nurse take first?
A) Irrigate the catheter
B) Check for kinks in the tubing
C) Notify the healthcare provider
D) Remove the catheter
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The nurse should first check for kinks or obstruction in the tubing (B)
as this can cause bladder distension and discomfort. Irrigation (A) is not first-
line. Notifying the provider (C) is premature. Removing the catheter (D) is not
indicated without an order.
3. A client is 2 days post-operative from abdominal surgery. Which finding indicates the
client is ready to ambulate?
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A) Heart rate of 110 beats per minute
B) Blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg
C) Client reports dizziness when sitting up
D) Stable vital signs and no dizziness
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Stable vital signs and no dizziness (D) indicate the client is ready to
ambulate. Tachycardia (A), hypotension (B), and dizziness (C) indicate the client
is not ready for ambulation.
4. A client with a colostomy reports that the pouch is leaking frequently. Which action
should the nurse take?
A) Apply a new pouch with a smaller opening
B) Apply a new pouch with a larger opening
C) Apply a skin barrier paste around the stoma
D) Apply a new pouch and tape the edges
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Skin barrier paste (C) helps create a seal around the stoma to prevent
leakage. A smaller opening (A) can cause trauma to the stoma. A larger
opening (B) can cause skin breakdown. Taping (D) is not a solution for leakage.
5. A client with a pressure injury has a wound with yellow slough and moderate
drainage. Which type of dressing is most appropriate?
A) Dry gauze dressing
B) Hydrocolloid dressing
C) Alginate dressing
D) Transparent film dressing
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Alginate dressings (C) are absorbent and used for wounds with
moderate to heavy drainage. Dry gauze (A) is not appropriate for a wound with
slough. Hydrocolloid (B) is for light drainage. Transparent film (D) is for dry
wounds.
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6. A client with dysphagia is prescribed a pureed diet. Which food item is appropriate
to include?
A) Mashed potatoes
B) Whole grapes
C) Apple slices
D) Granola
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Mashed potatoes (A) are pureed and safe for a dysphagia diet. Whole
grapes (B), apple slices (C), and granola (D) are not pureed and pose a choking
risk.
7. A client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which action should the nurse
take to prevent infection?
A) Change the TPN tubing every 72 hours
B) Change the central line dressing every 7 days
C) Use strict aseptic technique during administration
D) Administer TPN through a peripheral IV line
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Strict aseptic technique (C) is essential to prevent catheter-related
bloodstream infections. TPN tubing should be changed every 24 hours (A), not
72. Dressings are changed every 24–48 hours (B). TPN should be administered
through a central line, not peripheral (D).
8. A client with a new ostomy asks the nurse when the pouch should be changed.
Which response is correct?
A) "Change the pouch every 24 hours."
B) "Change the pouch when it is one-third full of stool."
C) "Change the pouch when it is one-half full of stool."
D) "Change the pouch every 7 days."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Ostomy pouches should be changed when they are one-third full (B)
of stool or gas to prevent leakage. Changing every 24 hours (A) is not necessary.
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Waiting until one-half full (C) increases leakage risk. Changing every 7 days (D)
is too long.
9. A client with a nasogastric tube to suction has a serum potassium of 3.0 mEq/L.
Which intervention is most appropriate?
A) Administer oral potassium supplement
B) Assess for muscle weakness and ECG changes
C) Increase the rate of IV fluids
D) Notify the healthcare provider
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: NG suctioning can cause hypokalemia (K <3.5 mEq/L). The nurse
should assess for signs of hypokalemia, including muscle weakness, fatigue,
and ECG changes (flat T waves, U waves). Oral potassium (A) may be
contraindicated if the client has an NG tube. The provider (D) should be notified
after assessment.
10. A client with a wound is receiving a wound vac (negative pressure wound therapy).
Which assessment finding indicates the therapy is effective?
A) Decreased wound drainage
B) Increased wound size
C) Presence of granulation tissue
D) Foul odor from the wound
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Presence of granulation tissue (C) indicates effective wound healing.
Decreased drainage (A) may occur but granulation tissue is the best indicator.
Increased wound size (B) and foul odor (D) indicate infection or poor healing.
11. A client with a new permanent pacemaker is being discharged. Which statement
indicates the client understands activity restrictions?
A) "I can lift my arm above my head to reach for items."
B) "I will avoid lifting heavy objects for 4 to 6 weeks."
NCLEX-RN Basic Care & Comfort Questions
And Well Graded Solutions With Rationales
Updated 2026-2027
1. A client with a nasogastric tube is prescribed intermittent enteral feedings. Which
position should the nurse place the client in during the feeding?
A) Supine position
B) Left lateral position
C) High-Fowler's position
D) Trendelenburg position
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: High-Fowler's position (45–90 degrees) should be maintained during
and for 1 hour after enteral feedings to prevent aspiration. Supine (A) increases
aspiration risk. Left lateral (B) is not recommended. Trendelenburg (D)
increases reflux risk.
2. A client with an indwelling urinary catheter reports discomfort and a sensation of
needing to urinate. Which action should the nurse take first?
A) Irrigate the catheter
B) Check for kinks in the tubing
C) Notify the healthcare provider
D) Remove the catheter
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The nurse should first check for kinks or obstruction in the tubing (B)
as this can cause bladder distension and discomfort. Irrigation (A) is not first-
line. Notifying the provider (C) is premature. Removing the catheter (D) is not
indicated without an order.
3. A client is 2 days post-operative from abdominal surgery. Which finding indicates the
client is ready to ambulate?
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A) Heart rate of 110 beats per minute
B) Blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg
C) Client reports dizziness when sitting up
D) Stable vital signs and no dizziness
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Stable vital signs and no dizziness (D) indicate the client is ready to
ambulate. Tachycardia (A), hypotension (B), and dizziness (C) indicate the client
is not ready for ambulation.
4. A client with a colostomy reports that the pouch is leaking frequently. Which action
should the nurse take?
A) Apply a new pouch with a smaller opening
B) Apply a new pouch with a larger opening
C) Apply a skin barrier paste around the stoma
D) Apply a new pouch and tape the edges
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Skin barrier paste (C) helps create a seal around the stoma to prevent
leakage. A smaller opening (A) can cause trauma to the stoma. A larger
opening (B) can cause skin breakdown. Taping (D) is not a solution for leakage.
5. A client with a pressure injury has a wound with yellow slough and moderate
drainage. Which type of dressing is most appropriate?
A) Dry gauze dressing
B) Hydrocolloid dressing
C) Alginate dressing
D) Transparent film dressing
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Alginate dressings (C) are absorbent and used for wounds with
moderate to heavy drainage. Dry gauze (A) is not appropriate for a wound with
slough. Hydrocolloid (B) is for light drainage. Transparent film (D) is for dry
wounds.
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6. A client with dysphagia is prescribed a pureed diet. Which food item is appropriate
to include?
A) Mashed potatoes
B) Whole grapes
C) Apple slices
D) Granola
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Mashed potatoes (A) are pureed and safe for a dysphagia diet. Whole
grapes (B), apple slices (C), and granola (D) are not pureed and pose a choking
risk.
7. A client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which action should the nurse
take to prevent infection?
A) Change the TPN tubing every 72 hours
B) Change the central line dressing every 7 days
C) Use strict aseptic technique during administration
D) Administer TPN through a peripheral IV line
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Strict aseptic technique (C) is essential to prevent catheter-related
bloodstream infections. TPN tubing should be changed every 24 hours (A), not
72. Dressings are changed every 24–48 hours (B). TPN should be administered
through a central line, not peripheral (D).
8. A client with a new ostomy asks the nurse when the pouch should be changed.
Which response is correct?
A) "Change the pouch every 24 hours."
B) "Change the pouch when it is one-third full of stool."
C) "Change the pouch when it is one-half full of stool."
D) "Change the pouch every 7 days."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Ostomy pouches should be changed when they are one-third full (B)
of stool or gas to prevent leakage. Changing every 24 hours (A) is not necessary.
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Waiting until one-half full (C) increases leakage risk. Changing every 7 days (D)
is too long.
9. A client with a nasogastric tube to suction has a serum potassium of 3.0 mEq/L.
Which intervention is most appropriate?
A) Administer oral potassium supplement
B) Assess for muscle weakness and ECG changes
C) Increase the rate of IV fluids
D) Notify the healthcare provider
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: NG suctioning can cause hypokalemia (K <3.5 mEq/L). The nurse
should assess for signs of hypokalemia, including muscle weakness, fatigue,
and ECG changes (flat T waves, U waves). Oral potassium (A) may be
contraindicated if the client has an NG tube. The provider (D) should be notified
after assessment.
10. A client with a wound is receiving a wound vac (negative pressure wound therapy).
Which assessment finding indicates the therapy is effective?
A) Decreased wound drainage
B) Increased wound size
C) Presence of granulation tissue
D) Foul odor from the wound
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Presence of granulation tissue (C) indicates effective wound healing.
Decreased drainage (A) may occur but granulation tissue is the best indicator.
Increased wound size (B) and foul odor (D) indicate infection or poor healing.
11. A client with a new permanent pacemaker is being discharged. Which statement
indicates the client understands activity restrictions?
A) "I can lift my arm above my head to reach for items."
B) "I will avoid lifting heavy objects for 4 to 6 weeks."
