NCLEX RN Health Promotion &
Maintenance Exam 1 Questions And
Correct Answers (Verified Answers) Plus
Rationales 2026 Q&A | Instant
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1. A 45-year-old female client asks the nurse about recommended screening
guidelines for breast cancer. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
A) "You should have a clinical breast examination every year and a mammogram
every 2 years starting at age 40."
B) "You should have a clinical breast examination every 3 years and a
mammogram every year starting at age 50."
C) "You should have a clinical breast examination every year and a mammogram
every year starting at age 40."
D) "You should have a clinical breast examination every 5 years and a
mammogram every 2 years starting at age 45."
Answer: C
Rationale: The American Cancer Society recommends that women at average
risk for breast cancer should undergo regular screening mammography starting
at age 45, with the option to begin at age 40. Women aged 45 to 54 should have
mammograms annually, and women aged 55 and older should transition to
biennial screening or have the option to continue annual screening. Clinical
breast examinations are recommended every year for women aged 40 and older.
Option A is incorrect because mammograms should be annual for women aged
45-54. Option B is incorrect because screening should begin at age 40-45, not 50.
Option D is incorrect because the frequency of clinical breast examinations and
,mammograms is more frequent than every 5 years or 2 years for women in this
age group.
2. A school nurse is providing education to a group of adolescents about
testicular self-examination. At what age should the nurse recommend that
young men begin performing this examination?
A) Age 12-14 years
B) Age 15-18 years
C) Age 19-21 years
D) Age 22-25 years
Answer: B
Rationale: Testicular self-examination (TSE) should begin at age 15 years and
continue monthly throughout life. Testicular cancer is the most common
malignancy in men aged 15-34 years. Beginning TSE at age 15 allows young men
to become familiar with the normal consistency and size of their testicles,
making it easier to detect abnormalities early. Option A (12-14 years) is too
early, as testicular cancer is rare before puberty. Option C (19-21 years) and
Option D (22-25 years) are too late, as the peak incidence of testicular cancer
occurs in the 15-34 age group, and early detection through TSE can significantly
improve outcomes.
3. A 68-year-old male client is being seen for a routine physical examination.
Which immunization should the nurse prioritize for this client based on current
recommendations?
A) Human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine
B) Pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV13)
C) Herpes zoster vaccine
D) Meningococcal conjugate vaccine
,Answer: C
Rationale: The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) recommends
that adults aged 50 years and older receive two doses of the recombinant zoster
vaccine (RZV, Shingrix) to prevent herpes zoster (shingles) and its complications.
Shingrix is preferred over the live-attenuated zoster vaccine (Zostavax).
Pneumococcal vaccination is also recommended for adults 65 years and older,
but the herpes zoster vaccine is specifically indicated at age 50. The HPV vaccine
is recommended up to age 26 (and up to age 45 in some cases) but is not a
priority for a 68-year-old. The meningococcal conjugate vaccine is recommended
for adolescents and young adults, not routinely for older adults.
4. A postpartum nurse is teaching a new mother about infant care. Which
statement by the mother indicates a need for further teaching regarding safe
sleep practices?
A) "I will place my baby on his back to sleep for every sleep time."
B) "I will use a firm mattress with a fitted sheet in the crib."
C) "I will keep the room at a comfortable temperature and not overbundle my
baby."
D) "I will place a small blanket in the crib to keep my baby warm."
Answer: D
Rationale: The American Academy of Pediatrics (AAP) recommends that infants
sleep on a firm surface with no soft objects, loose bedding, or bumper pads in
the crib to reduce the risk of Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS) and other
sleep-related deaths. A small blanket should not be placed in the crib because it
poses a suffocation risk. Instead, parents should dress the baby in a wearable
blanket or sleep sack. Options A, B, and C are all appropriate safe sleep practices
that align with current AAP recommendations.
, 5. A 52-year-old female client asks the nurse about recommended screening for
colorectal cancer. Which screening test and frequency should the nurse
recommend?
A) Fecal occult blood test (FOBT) every year
B) Colonoscopy every 5 years
C) Flexible sigmoidoscopy every 10 years
D) Fecal immunochemical test (FIT) every 2 years
Answer: A
Rationale: The United States Preventive Services Task Force (USPSTF)
recommends screening for colorectal cancer starting at age 45 and continuing
until age 75. Options for screening include high-sensitivity fecal occult blood
testing (FOBT) or fecal immunochemical testing (FIT) every year, colonoscopy
every 10 years, flexible sigmoidoscopy every 5 years, or CT colonography every 5
years. Option A is correct because FOBT annually is an accepted screening
strategy. Option B is incorrect because colonoscopy should be performed every
10 years, not 5 years, for average-risk individuals. Option C is incorrect because
flexible sigmoidoscopy should be performed every 5 years, not 10 years. Option
D is incorrect because FIT should be performed annually, not every 2 years.
6. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who is 12 weeks pregnant.
Which food should the nurse instruct the client to avoid during pregnancy?
A) Pasteurized milk
B) Canned tuna fish
C) Soft cheeses such as feta and Brie
D) Cooked eggs
Answer: C
Rationale: Pregnant women should avoid soft cheeses made from unpasteurized
milk, such as feta, Brie, Camembert, blue-veined cheeses, and Mexican-style
cheeses like queso blanco and queso fresco, because they may contain Listeria
monocytogenes, a bacterium that can cause listeriosis. Listeriosis can lead to
Maintenance Exam 1 Questions And
Correct Answers (Verified Answers) Plus
Rationales 2026 Q&A | Instant
Download Pdf
1. A 45-year-old female client asks the nurse about recommended screening
guidelines for breast cancer. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
A) "You should have a clinical breast examination every year and a mammogram
every 2 years starting at age 40."
B) "You should have a clinical breast examination every 3 years and a
mammogram every year starting at age 50."
C) "You should have a clinical breast examination every year and a mammogram
every year starting at age 40."
D) "You should have a clinical breast examination every 5 years and a
mammogram every 2 years starting at age 45."
Answer: C
Rationale: The American Cancer Society recommends that women at average
risk for breast cancer should undergo regular screening mammography starting
at age 45, with the option to begin at age 40. Women aged 45 to 54 should have
mammograms annually, and women aged 55 and older should transition to
biennial screening or have the option to continue annual screening. Clinical
breast examinations are recommended every year for women aged 40 and older.
Option A is incorrect because mammograms should be annual for women aged
45-54. Option B is incorrect because screening should begin at age 40-45, not 50.
Option D is incorrect because the frequency of clinical breast examinations and
,mammograms is more frequent than every 5 years or 2 years for women in this
age group.
2. A school nurse is providing education to a group of adolescents about
testicular self-examination. At what age should the nurse recommend that
young men begin performing this examination?
A) Age 12-14 years
B) Age 15-18 years
C) Age 19-21 years
D) Age 22-25 years
Answer: B
Rationale: Testicular self-examination (TSE) should begin at age 15 years and
continue monthly throughout life. Testicular cancer is the most common
malignancy in men aged 15-34 years. Beginning TSE at age 15 allows young men
to become familiar with the normal consistency and size of their testicles,
making it easier to detect abnormalities early. Option A (12-14 years) is too
early, as testicular cancer is rare before puberty. Option C (19-21 years) and
Option D (22-25 years) are too late, as the peak incidence of testicular cancer
occurs in the 15-34 age group, and early detection through TSE can significantly
improve outcomes.
3. A 68-year-old male client is being seen for a routine physical examination.
Which immunization should the nurse prioritize for this client based on current
recommendations?
A) Human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine
B) Pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV13)
C) Herpes zoster vaccine
D) Meningococcal conjugate vaccine
,Answer: C
Rationale: The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) recommends
that adults aged 50 years and older receive two doses of the recombinant zoster
vaccine (RZV, Shingrix) to prevent herpes zoster (shingles) and its complications.
Shingrix is preferred over the live-attenuated zoster vaccine (Zostavax).
Pneumococcal vaccination is also recommended for adults 65 years and older,
but the herpes zoster vaccine is specifically indicated at age 50. The HPV vaccine
is recommended up to age 26 (and up to age 45 in some cases) but is not a
priority for a 68-year-old. The meningococcal conjugate vaccine is recommended
for adolescents and young adults, not routinely for older adults.
4. A postpartum nurse is teaching a new mother about infant care. Which
statement by the mother indicates a need for further teaching regarding safe
sleep practices?
A) "I will place my baby on his back to sleep for every sleep time."
B) "I will use a firm mattress with a fitted sheet in the crib."
C) "I will keep the room at a comfortable temperature and not overbundle my
baby."
D) "I will place a small blanket in the crib to keep my baby warm."
Answer: D
Rationale: The American Academy of Pediatrics (AAP) recommends that infants
sleep on a firm surface with no soft objects, loose bedding, or bumper pads in
the crib to reduce the risk of Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS) and other
sleep-related deaths. A small blanket should not be placed in the crib because it
poses a suffocation risk. Instead, parents should dress the baby in a wearable
blanket or sleep sack. Options A, B, and C are all appropriate safe sleep practices
that align with current AAP recommendations.
, 5. A 52-year-old female client asks the nurse about recommended screening for
colorectal cancer. Which screening test and frequency should the nurse
recommend?
A) Fecal occult blood test (FOBT) every year
B) Colonoscopy every 5 years
C) Flexible sigmoidoscopy every 10 years
D) Fecal immunochemical test (FIT) every 2 years
Answer: A
Rationale: The United States Preventive Services Task Force (USPSTF)
recommends screening for colorectal cancer starting at age 45 and continuing
until age 75. Options for screening include high-sensitivity fecal occult blood
testing (FOBT) or fecal immunochemical testing (FIT) every year, colonoscopy
every 10 years, flexible sigmoidoscopy every 5 years, or CT colonography every 5
years. Option A is correct because FOBT annually is an accepted screening
strategy. Option B is incorrect because colonoscopy should be performed every
10 years, not 5 years, for average-risk individuals. Option C is incorrect because
flexible sigmoidoscopy should be performed every 5 years, not 10 years. Option
D is incorrect because FIT should be performed annually, not every 2 years.
6. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who is 12 weeks pregnant.
Which food should the nurse instruct the client to avoid during pregnancy?
A) Pasteurized milk
B) Canned tuna fish
C) Soft cheeses such as feta and Brie
D) Cooked eggs
Answer: C
Rationale: Pregnant women should avoid soft cheeses made from unpasteurized
milk, such as feta, Brie, Camembert, blue-veined cheeses, and Mexican-style
cheeses like queso blanco and queso fresco, because they may contain Listeria
monocytogenes, a bacterium that can cause listeriosis. Listeriosis can lead to
