Barkley WHNP Exam Practice Questions –
Complete 300-Q Test Bank with Verified Answers
& Detailed Rationales | Women's Health Nurse
Practitioner Certification Review | 2026/2027
Edition | 100% Pass Guarantee
SECTION 1: PRIMARY CARE & HEALTH PROMOTION (Questions 1–50)
Question 1
A 32-year-old woman presents for an annual well-woman exam. She has no significant
past medical history. Which of the following immunizations should the nurse
practitioner recommend at this visit?
A) Human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine
B) Tetanus, diphtheria, and pertussis (Tdap) vaccine
C) Meningococcal conjugate vaccine
D) Hepatitis A vaccine
Correct Answer: B) Tetanus, diphtheria, and pertussis (Tdap) vaccine
Rationale: All adults aged 19-64 should receive a Tdap booster once, followed by Td every
10 years. HPV vaccination is recommended through age 26 and may be considered for
ages 27-45. Meningococcal and Hepatitis A vaccines are not indicated for routine well-
woman exams unless specific risk factors exist.
Question 2
A 45-year-old patient with a BMI of 32 is being counseled on weight management and
cardiovascular risk reduction. In addition to dietary changes, which of the following
recommendations is most appropriate?
A) High-intensity interval training (HIIT) 5 days per week
B) Moderate-intensity aerobic activity for at least 150 minutes per week
C) Resistance training only, as it is best for weight loss
D) Avoid physical activity to prevent joint injury
,Correct Answer: B) Moderate-intensity aerobic activity for at least 150 minutes per
week
Rationale: The American Heart Association recommends at least 150 minutes of
moderate-intensity aerobic activity per week for cardiovascular health. Resistance training
is also beneficial, but should be combined with aerobic activity.
Question 3
The USPSTF recommends screening for depression in pregnant and postpartum women.
Which of the following screening tools is most commonly used for this purpose?
A) PHQ-9
B) Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale (EPDS)
C) Beck Depression Inventory (BDI)
D) Zung Self-Rating Depression Scale
Correct Answer: B) Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale (EPDS)
Rationale: The EPDS is specifically validated for screening for depression in pregnant and
postpartum women. It includes 10 questions that assess mood in the context of the
perinatal period. The PHQ-9 is also used, but EPDS is the most specific and widely used for
this population.
Question 4
A 28-year-old patient with a history of type 1 diabetes is planning pregnancy. What is
the most important preconception counseling recommendation?
A) Maintain HbA1c below 8% to minimize risks
B) Achieve optimal glycemic control (HbA1c < 6.5%) before conception
C) Switch from insulin to oral hypoglycemic agents
D) Delay pregnancy until all diabetes medications are discontinued
Correct Answer: B) Achieve optimal glycemic control (HbA1c < 6.5%) before
conception
Rationale: Preconception glycemic control is critical to reduce the risk of congenital
anomalies and adverse outcomes. HbA1c < 6.5% is the target. Insulin is the preferred
,medication for managing diabetes during pregnancy; oral agents are generally not
recommended.
Question 5
A 55-year-old woman asks about osteoporosis screening. According to the USPSTF,
which of the following is the recommended screening test?
A) Quantitative ultrasound of the heel
B) Serum calcium and vitamin D levels
C) Dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DXA) of the hip and spine
D) Urinary N-telopeptide levels
Correct Answer: C) Dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DXA) of the hip and spine
Rationale: DXA is the gold standard for diagnosing osteoporosis. The USPSTF recommends
screening for all women aged 65 and older and for younger women with risk factors.
Question 6
A 30-year-old woman with no significant past medical history is being counseled on
cancer screening. She has no family history of cancer. Which of the following statements
regarding cervical cancer screening is correct?
A) She should start Pap smear screening at age 21
B) She should start Pap smear screening at age 25
C) She should start Pap smear screening at age 30
D) She should start Pap smear screening at age 18 if sexually active
Correct Answer: A) She should start Pap smear screening at age 21
Rationale: Current guidelines recommend starting cervical cancer screening (Pap smear)
at age 21, regardless of the age of sexual initiation. From ages 21-29, Pap smear every 3
years; from 30-65, Pap smear every 3 years, or cotesting with HPV every 5 years.
Question 7
A 38-year-old woman is being evaluated for hypertension. Her blood pressure is 148/92
, mmHg. Which of the following is the most appropriate first-line treatment for
hypertension in a non-pregnant patient?
A) Hydrochlorothiazide
B) Lisinopril
C) Metoprolol
D) Amlodipine
Correct Answer: B) Lisinopril
Rationale: ACE inhibitors (like lisinopril) or ARBs are recommended as first-line therapy in
hypertensive patients, especially those of reproductive age who may be at risk of
pregnancy. ACE inhibitors are teratogenic and should be avoided in pregnancy, but are
appropriate for non-pregnant patients. Thiazide diuretics and calcium channel blockers
are also options.
Question 8
A 22-year-old woman with a history of migraines with aura is seeking contraception.
Which contraceptive method is contraindicated?
A) Progestin-only pill
B) Copper intrauterine device
C) Combined oral contraceptive pills
D) Etonogestrel implant
Correct Answer: C) Combined oral contraceptive pills
Rationale: Combined hormonal contraceptives (containing estrogen) are contraindicated
in patients with migraines with aura due to an increased risk of stroke. Progestin-only
methods, the copper IUD, and the implant are safe alternatives.
Question 9
A 50-year-old woman is concerned about her risk of breast cancer. Her mother was
diagnosed with breast cancer at age 55. Which of the following would be the most
appropriate next step?
Complete 300-Q Test Bank with Verified Answers
& Detailed Rationales | Women's Health Nurse
Practitioner Certification Review | 2026/2027
Edition | 100% Pass Guarantee
SECTION 1: PRIMARY CARE & HEALTH PROMOTION (Questions 1–50)
Question 1
A 32-year-old woman presents for an annual well-woman exam. She has no significant
past medical history. Which of the following immunizations should the nurse
practitioner recommend at this visit?
A) Human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine
B) Tetanus, diphtheria, and pertussis (Tdap) vaccine
C) Meningococcal conjugate vaccine
D) Hepatitis A vaccine
Correct Answer: B) Tetanus, diphtheria, and pertussis (Tdap) vaccine
Rationale: All adults aged 19-64 should receive a Tdap booster once, followed by Td every
10 years. HPV vaccination is recommended through age 26 and may be considered for
ages 27-45. Meningococcal and Hepatitis A vaccines are not indicated for routine well-
woman exams unless specific risk factors exist.
Question 2
A 45-year-old patient with a BMI of 32 is being counseled on weight management and
cardiovascular risk reduction. In addition to dietary changes, which of the following
recommendations is most appropriate?
A) High-intensity interval training (HIIT) 5 days per week
B) Moderate-intensity aerobic activity for at least 150 minutes per week
C) Resistance training only, as it is best for weight loss
D) Avoid physical activity to prevent joint injury
,Correct Answer: B) Moderate-intensity aerobic activity for at least 150 minutes per
week
Rationale: The American Heart Association recommends at least 150 minutes of
moderate-intensity aerobic activity per week for cardiovascular health. Resistance training
is also beneficial, but should be combined with aerobic activity.
Question 3
The USPSTF recommends screening for depression in pregnant and postpartum women.
Which of the following screening tools is most commonly used for this purpose?
A) PHQ-9
B) Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale (EPDS)
C) Beck Depression Inventory (BDI)
D) Zung Self-Rating Depression Scale
Correct Answer: B) Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale (EPDS)
Rationale: The EPDS is specifically validated for screening for depression in pregnant and
postpartum women. It includes 10 questions that assess mood in the context of the
perinatal period. The PHQ-9 is also used, but EPDS is the most specific and widely used for
this population.
Question 4
A 28-year-old patient with a history of type 1 diabetes is planning pregnancy. What is
the most important preconception counseling recommendation?
A) Maintain HbA1c below 8% to minimize risks
B) Achieve optimal glycemic control (HbA1c < 6.5%) before conception
C) Switch from insulin to oral hypoglycemic agents
D) Delay pregnancy until all diabetes medications are discontinued
Correct Answer: B) Achieve optimal glycemic control (HbA1c < 6.5%) before
conception
Rationale: Preconception glycemic control is critical to reduce the risk of congenital
anomalies and adverse outcomes. HbA1c < 6.5% is the target. Insulin is the preferred
,medication for managing diabetes during pregnancy; oral agents are generally not
recommended.
Question 5
A 55-year-old woman asks about osteoporosis screening. According to the USPSTF,
which of the following is the recommended screening test?
A) Quantitative ultrasound of the heel
B) Serum calcium and vitamin D levels
C) Dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DXA) of the hip and spine
D) Urinary N-telopeptide levels
Correct Answer: C) Dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DXA) of the hip and spine
Rationale: DXA is the gold standard for diagnosing osteoporosis. The USPSTF recommends
screening for all women aged 65 and older and for younger women with risk factors.
Question 6
A 30-year-old woman with no significant past medical history is being counseled on
cancer screening. She has no family history of cancer. Which of the following statements
regarding cervical cancer screening is correct?
A) She should start Pap smear screening at age 21
B) She should start Pap smear screening at age 25
C) She should start Pap smear screening at age 30
D) She should start Pap smear screening at age 18 if sexually active
Correct Answer: A) She should start Pap smear screening at age 21
Rationale: Current guidelines recommend starting cervical cancer screening (Pap smear)
at age 21, regardless of the age of sexual initiation. From ages 21-29, Pap smear every 3
years; from 30-65, Pap smear every 3 years, or cotesting with HPV every 5 years.
Question 7
A 38-year-old woman is being evaluated for hypertension. Her blood pressure is 148/92
, mmHg. Which of the following is the most appropriate first-line treatment for
hypertension in a non-pregnant patient?
A) Hydrochlorothiazide
B) Lisinopril
C) Metoprolol
D) Amlodipine
Correct Answer: B) Lisinopril
Rationale: ACE inhibitors (like lisinopril) or ARBs are recommended as first-line therapy in
hypertensive patients, especially those of reproductive age who may be at risk of
pregnancy. ACE inhibitors are teratogenic and should be avoided in pregnancy, but are
appropriate for non-pregnant patients. Thiazide diuretics and calcium channel blockers
are also options.
Question 8
A 22-year-old woman with a history of migraines with aura is seeking contraception.
Which contraceptive method is contraindicated?
A) Progestin-only pill
B) Copper intrauterine device
C) Combined oral contraceptive pills
D) Etonogestrel implant
Correct Answer: C) Combined oral contraceptive pills
Rationale: Combined hormonal contraceptives (containing estrogen) are contraindicated
in patients with migraines with aura due to an increased risk of stroke. Progestin-only
methods, the copper IUD, and the implant are safe alternatives.
Question 9
A 50-year-old woman is concerned about her risk of breast cancer. Her mother was
diagnosed with breast cancer at age 55. Which of the following would be the most
appropriate next step?
