NURS 5433
Comprehensive Resource To Help You Ace 2026-2027 Exams
Includes Frequently Tested Questions With ELABORATED
100% Correct COMPLETE SOLUTIONS
Guaranteed Pass First Attempt!! Current Update!!
1. Bacterial conjunctivitis is most commonly caused by which three organisms?
A) E. coli, Klebsiella, Proteus
B) Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, Staphylococcus aureus
C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Moraxella catarrhalis, Enterococcus
D) Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Chlamydia trachomatis, Mycoplasma
Answer: B
2. A 19-year-old reports bilateral itchy, red eyes with intermittent year-round
tearing, a stringy/rope-like discharge, and clear rhinorrhea. What is the likely
diagnosis?
A) Bacterial conjunctivitis
B) Viral conjunctivitis
C) Allergic conjunctivitis
D) Keratitis
Answer: C
3. Which feature best distinguishes allergic conjunctivitis from bacterial or viral
conjunctivitis?
A) Purulent yellow-green discharge
B) Preauricular lymphadenopathy
C) Bilateral itching with stringy mucoid discharge and seasonal pattern
D) Unilateral onset with crusting on waking
Answer: C
4. Ms. Murphy, 58, presents with sudden left-sided headache centered in the eye,
blurred vision, a slightly dilated poorly reactive left pupil, marked conjunctival
injection, and a firm globe. Snellen: 20/30 OD, 20/90 OS. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
A) Open-angle glaucoma
B) Angle-closure glaucoma
,C) Anterior uveitis
D) Central retinal artery occlusion
Answer: B
5. What is the recommended initial management of suspected acute angle-
closure glaucoma before ophthalmology evaluation?
A) Topical antibiotics and warm compresses
B) Immediate referral with IOP-lowering agents (topical beta-blockers, alpha-
agonists, carbonic anhydrase inhibitors, and/or systemic osmotics)
C) Oral antihistamines and observation
D) Patching the affected eye
Answer: B
6. What funduscopic finding is most characteristic of untreated primary open-
angle glaucoma (POAG)?
A) Optic disk pallor
B) Excessive cupping of the optic disk
C) Flame-shaped hemorrhages
D) Cotton-wool spots
Answer: B
7. How does POAG typically present compared to angle-closure glaucoma?
A) Acute pain with halos around lights
B) Painless, gradual peripheral vision loss
C) Sudden central vision loss
D) Bilateral photophobia with discharge
Answer: B
8. Mrs. Allen, 67, with type 2 diabetes, reports new flashing lights, floaters,
decreased visual acuity, and metamorphopsia in her left eye. What is the most
likely diagnosis?
A) Diabetic macular edema
B) Retinal detachment
C) Vitreous hemorrhage
D) Central retinal vein occlusion
Answer: B
9. What does metamorphopsia refer to, and why is it concerning in this patient?
A) Loss of color vision; suggests optic neuritis
B) Perceived distortion of straight lines; suggests retinal pathology like
,detachment
C) Double vision; suggests cranial nerve palsy
D) Blurred near vision; suggests presbyopia
Answer: B
10. A 22-year-old woman has a "pimple" on her right eyelid — a 2 mm tender
pustule at the lateral lid margin. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Chalazion
B) Hordeolum
C) Blepharitis
D) Dacryocystitis
Answer: B
11. The same patient later presents with a 2 mm firm, nontender swelling at the
lateral eyelid margin. What is this most consistent with?
A) Hordeolum
B) Preseptal cellulitis
C) Chalazion
D) Xanthelasma
Answer: C
12. What best distinguishes a hordeolum from a chalazion?
A) Hordeolum is chronic and painless; chalazion is acute and tender
B) Hordeolum is acute and tender; chalazion is chronic, painless, and
granulomatous
C) Both are equally acute and tender
D) Chalazion is always infectious; hordeolum is not
Answer: B
Head and Neck / Oral Cancer
13. Which infectious agent is an independent risk factor for oral cancer?
A) HPV type 6
B) HPV type 16
C) HSV type 1
D) EBV
Answer: B
14. Besides HPV-16, which of the following are major risk factors for oral cancer?
A) Tobacco use and heavy alcohol consumption (especially combined)
B) Excessive caffeine intake
C) Seasonal allergies
D) Frequent dental cleanings
Answer: A
, Otitis Externa
15. What are the three most common causative pathogens in otitis externa?
A) Strep pneumoniae, H. influenzae, M. catarrhalis
B) Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Proteus (Enterobacteriaceae), Staphylococcus
aureus
C) E. coli, Klebsiella, Enterococcus
D) Candida albicans, Aspergillus, Staph epidermidis
Answer: B
16. Which oral antibiotic class is appropriate for outpatient treatment of otitis
externa with accompanying cellulitis?
A) Macrolides
B) Fluoroquinolones
C) Tetracyclines
D) Aminoglycosides
Answer: B
17. Which exam finding classically differentiates otitis externa from otitis media?
A) Tympanic membrane bulging
B) Pain with tragal traction/auricular manipulation
C) Tympanic membrane immobility
D) Purulent nasal discharge
Answer: B
Otitis Media
18. What are the three most common causative pathogens in otitis media?
A) Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Proteus, Staph aureus
B) Strep pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, Moraxella catarrhalis
C) E. coli, Klebsiella, Enterococcus
D) Staph epidermidis, Candida, Aspergillus
Answer: B
19. What otoscopic finding is expected in acute otitis media (AOM)?
A) Tympanic membrane mobility
B) Tympanic membrane immobility
C) Clear middle ear space
D) Retracted tympanic membrane with no effusion
Answer: B
20. Besides immobility, what other otoscopic findings support a diagnosis of
AOM?
A) TM pallor and thinning
B) TM erythema, bulging, and opacification/effusion
C) TM perforation with clear drainage only
D) Normal light reflex with mobile TM
Comprehensive Resource To Help You Ace 2026-2027 Exams
Includes Frequently Tested Questions With ELABORATED
100% Correct COMPLETE SOLUTIONS
Guaranteed Pass First Attempt!! Current Update!!
1. Bacterial conjunctivitis is most commonly caused by which three organisms?
A) E. coli, Klebsiella, Proteus
B) Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, Staphylococcus aureus
C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Moraxella catarrhalis, Enterococcus
D) Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Chlamydia trachomatis, Mycoplasma
Answer: B
2. A 19-year-old reports bilateral itchy, red eyes with intermittent year-round
tearing, a stringy/rope-like discharge, and clear rhinorrhea. What is the likely
diagnosis?
A) Bacterial conjunctivitis
B) Viral conjunctivitis
C) Allergic conjunctivitis
D) Keratitis
Answer: C
3. Which feature best distinguishes allergic conjunctivitis from bacterial or viral
conjunctivitis?
A) Purulent yellow-green discharge
B) Preauricular lymphadenopathy
C) Bilateral itching with stringy mucoid discharge and seasonal pattern
D) Unilateral onset with crusting on waking
Answer: C
4. Ms. Murphy, 58, presents with sudden left-sided headache centered in the eye,
blurred vision, a slightly dilated poorly reactive left pupil, marked conjunctival
injection, and a firm globe. Snellen: 20/30 OD, 20/90 OS. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
A) Open-angle glaucoma
B) Angle-closure glaucoma
,C) Anterior uveitis
D) Central retinal artery occlusion
Answer: B
5. What is the recommended initial management of suspected acute angle-
closure glaucoma before ophthalmology evaluation?
A) Topical antibiotics and warm compresses
B) Immediate referral with IOP-lowering agents (topical beta-blockers, alpha-
agonists, carbonic anhydrase inhibitors, and/or systemic osmotics)
C) Oral antihistamines and observation
D) Patching the affected eye
Answer: B
6. What funduscopic finding is most characteristic of untreated primary open-
angle glaucoma (POAG)?
A) Optic disk pallor
B) Excessive cupping of the optic disk
C) Flame-shaped hemorrhages
D) Cotton-wool spots
Answer: B
7. How does POAG typically present compared to angle-closure glaucoma?
A) Acute pain with halos around lights
B) Painless, gradual peripheral vision loss
C) Sudden central vision loss
D) Bilateral photophobia with discharge
Answer: B
8. Mrs. Allen, 67, with type 2 diabetes, reports new flashing lights, floaters,
decreased visual acuity, and metamorphopsia in her left eye. What is the most
likely diagnosis?
A) Diabetic macular edema
B) Retinal detachment
C) Vitreous hemorrhage
D) Central retinal vein occlusion
Answer: B
9. What does metamorphopsia refer to, and why is it concerning in this patient?
A) Loss of color vision; suggests optic neuritis
B) Perceived distortion of straight lines; suggests retinal pathology like
,detachment
C) Double vision; suggests cranial nerve palsy
D) Blurred near vision; suggests presbyopia
Answer: B
10. A 22-year-old woman has a "pimple" on her right eyelid — a 2 mm tender
pustule at the lateral lid margin. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Chalazion
B) Hordeolum
C) Blepharitis
D) Dacryocystitis
Answer: B
11. The same patient later presents with a 2 mm firm, nontender swelling at the
lateral eyelid margin. What is this most consistent with?
A) Hordeolum
B) Preseptal cellulitis
C) Chalazion
D) Xanthelasma
Answer: C
12. What best distinguishes a hordeolum from a chalazion?
A) Hordeolum is chronic and painless; chalazion is acute and tender
B) Hordeolum is acute and tender; chalazion is chronic, painless, and
granulomatous
C) Both are equally acute and tender
D) Chalazion is always infectious; hordeolum is not
Answer: B
Head and Neck / Oral Cancer
13. Which infectious agent is an independent risk factor for oral cancer?
A) HPV type 6
B) HPV type 16
C) HSV type 1
D) EBV
Answer: B
14. Besides HPV-16, which of the following are major risk factors for oral cancer?
A) Tobacco use and heavy alcohol consumption (especially combined)
B) Excessive caffeine intake
C) Seasonal allergies
D) Frequent dental cleanings
Answer: A
, Otitis Externa
15. What are the three most common causative pathogens in otitis externa?
A) Strep pneumoniae, H. influenzae, M. catarrhalis
B) Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Proteus (Enterobacteriaceae), Staphylococcus
aureus
C) E. coli, Klebsiella, Enterococcus
D) Candida albicans, Aspergillus, Staph epidermidis
Answer: B
16. Which oral antibiotic class is appropriate for outpatient treatment of otitis
externa with accompanying cellulitis?
A) Macrolides
B) Fluoroquinolones
C) Tetracyclines
D) Aminoglycosides
Answer: B
17. Which exam finding classically differentiates otitis externa from otitis media?
A) Tympanic membrane bulging
B) Pain with tragal traction/auricular manipulation
C) Tympanic membrane immobility
D) Purulent nasal discharge
Answer: B
Otitis Media
18. What are the three most common causative pathogens in otitis media?
A) Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Proteus, Staph aureus
B) Strep pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, Moraxella catarrhalis
C) E. coli, Klebsiella, Enterococcus
D) Staph epidermidis, Candida, Aspergillus
Answer: B
19. What otoscopic finding is expected in acute otitis media (AOM)?
A) Tympanic membrane mobility
B) Tympanic membrane immobility
C) Clear middle ear space
D) Retracted tympanic membrane with no effusion
Answer: B
20. Besides immobility, what other otoscopic findings support a diagnosis of
AOM?
A) TM pallor and thinning
B) TM erythema, bulging, and opacification/effusion
C) TM perforation with clear drainage only
D) Normal light reflex with mobile TM
