BSN HESI MED SURG EXAM 2026
COMPLETE TEST BANK
QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED
LATEST MOCK PRACTICE SET
240 Questions with Answers and Detailed Rationales
100 PERCENT GUARANTEED PASS
INSTANT DOWNLOAD ANSWERS INCLUDED
IMPORTANCE OF THIS DOCUMENT
This comprehensive examination preparation guide has been meticulously developed to help you succeed in the
BSN HESI MED SURG EXAM 2026 COMPLETE TEST BANK QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED ANSWERS WITH
DETAILED RATIONALES| EXPERT VERIFIED FOR GUARANTEED PASS 2026. It contains 240 carefully
selected questions that reflect the most current exam content and testing strategies. Each question is
accompanied by a correct answer and a detailed rationale that explains the underlying pathophysiology,
pharmacology, or clinical reasoning.
Self-Assessment – Test your knowledge and Exam Preparation – Familiarize yourself with the
identify areas requiring further question format and content
study areas
Concept Reinforcement – Deepen your Confidence Building – Develop test-taking
understanding through strategies and reduce
evidence-based exam anxiety
rationales
Time Management – Practice answering
questions under simulated
exam conditions
Review Summary 240 Questions
Foundations - Application - BSN HESI MED SURG 2026 Complete BANK AND WITH Detailed Rationales
Expert FOR Guaranteed PASS 2026 Medical-surgical Nursing Undergraduate YEAR 4 / BSN
All answers with rationales
,Table of Contents
Section A - Management OF CARE Section B - Safety AND Infection
Questions 1 to 60 Control
Questions 61 to 120
Section C - Health Promotion AND Section D - Psychosocial Integrity
Maintenance Questions 181 to 240
Questions 121 to 180
,Section A - Management OF CARE
Q1.
In a patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) managed with
lung-protective ventilation, which ventilator setting adjustment would most directly reduce
the risk of ventilator-induced lung injury while maintaining adequate oxygenation?
A. Increase positive end-expiratory pressure B. Increase tidal volume to 8 mL/kg
(PEEP) to 20 cm H2O predicted body weight
C. Decrease plateau pressure to less than D. Increase respiratory rate to achieve
30 cm H2O PaCO2 of 35 mm Hg
Correct: C - Decrease plateau pressure to less than 30 cm H2O
Rationale:Limiting plateau pressure to <30 cm H2O is the cornerstone of lung-protective
ventilation to prevent volutrauma and barotrauma. High PEEP may improve oxygenation but
can cause overdistention; high tidal volumes exacerbate lung injury; increasing respiratory
rate may cause dynamic hyperinflation.
Q2.
A patient with septic shock and acute kidney injury is receiving norepinephrine and
vasopressin. The nurse notes a decrease in urine output to 0.2 mL/kg/hr over 4 hours.
Which intervention should be prioritized?
A. Administer a 500 mL bolus of 0.9% B. Increase the norepinephrine infusion rate
normal saline
C. Start continuous renal replacement D. Assess mean arterial pressure (MAP)
therapy (CRRT) and cardiac output
Correct: D - Assess mean arterial pressure (MAP) and cardiac output
Rationale:In septic shock with oliguria, the priority is to assess hemodynamic status (MAP,
cardiac output) to determine if renal hypoperfusion is due to inadequate perfusion pressure or
low cardiac output. Fluid bolus may be harmful if the patient is fluid overloaded; increasing
vasopressors without assessment may worsen tissue perfusion; CRRT is not first-line for
oliguria without life-threatening complications.
Q3.
A patient with a history of atrial fibrillation is started on warfarin. The nurse reviews the
patient's medication list and identifies a potential drug interaction that could significantly
increase the international normalized ratio (INR). Which medication is most likely
responsible?
Page 3
, Section A - Management OF CARE
A. Acetaminophen 650 mg every 6 hours as B. Omeprazole 20 mg daily
needed
C. Metoprolol succinate 50 mg daily D. Levothyroxine 100 mcg daily
Correct: A - Acetaminophen 650 mg every 6 hours as needed
Rationale:Acetaminophen, especially at high doses, potentiates warfarin by inhibiting vitamin
K-dependent clotting factor synthesis, leading to elevated INR. Omeprazole has minor
interaction; metoprolol and levothyroxine do not significantly affect warfarin metabolism.
Q4.
A patient with a traumatic brain injury has an intracranial pressure (ICP) monitor in place.
The nurse notes that the ICP waveform is dampened and the patient's mean arterial
pressure (MAP) is 70 mm Hg. Which nursing action is most appropriate?
A. Reposition the patient with head of bed at B. Flush the ICP monitor with 0.5 mL of
30 degrees sterile saline
C. Administer mannitol 0.5 g/kg D. Check the level of the transducer and
intravenously recalibrate
Correct: D - Check the level of the transducer and recalibrate
Rationale:A dampened waveform often indicates improper transducer leveling or air bubbles.
The transducer must be zeroed at the level of the foramen of Monro. Repositioning may affect
ICP but does not correct waveform dampening; flushing a monitor without checking may
cause infection; mannitol is for elevated ICP, not waveform issues.
Q5.
A patient with decompensated cirrhosis and ascites is prescribed spironolactone 100 mg
daily. The nurse notes a serum potassium level of 5.8 mEq/L. Which action should the
nurse take first?
A. Administer sodium polystyrene sulfonate B. Hold the spironolactone and notify the
(Kayexalate) provider
C. Administer the spironolactone with a D. Obtain a stat electrocardiogram (ECG)
low-potassium diet
Correct: B - Hold the spironolactone and notify the provider
Rationale:Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic; with hyperkalemia (K+ >5.5), it
should be held to prevent life-threatening arrhythmias. Kayexalate may be used but is not
first-line; administering the drug would worsen hyperkalemia; ECG is important but holding
the drug is the immediate priority.
Page 4
COMPLETE TEST BANK
QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED
LATEST MOCK PRACTICE SET
240 Questions with Answers and Detailed Rationales
100 PERCENT GUARANTEED PASS
INSTANT DOWNLOAD ANSWERS INCLUDED
IMPORTANCE OF THIS DOCUMENT
This comprehensive examination preparation guide has been meticulously developed to help you succeed in the
BSN HESI MED SURG EXAM 2026 COMPLETE TEST BANK QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED ANSWERS WITH
DETAILED RATIONALES| EXPERT VERIFIED FOR GUARANTEED PASS 2026. It contains 240 carefully
selected questions that reflect the most current exam content and testing strategies. Each question is
accompanied by a correct answer and a detailed rationale that explains the underlying pathophysiology,
pharmacology, or clinical reasoning.
Self-Assessment – Test your knowledge and Exam Preparation – Familiarize yourself with the
identify areas requiring further question format and content
study areas
Concept Reinforcement – Deepen your Confidence Building – Develop test-taking
understanding through strategies and reduce
evidence-based exam anxiety
rationales
Time Management – Practice answering
questions under simulated
exam conditions
Review Summary 240 Questions
Foundations - Application - BSN HESI MED SURG 2026 Complete BANK AND WITH Detailed Rationales
Expert FOR Guaranteed PASS 2026 Medical-surgical Nursing Undergraduate YEAR 4 / BSN
All answers with rationales
,Table of Contents
Section A - Management OF CARE Section B - Safety AND Infection
Questions 1 to 60 Control
Questions 61 to 120
Section C - Health Promotion AND Section D - Psychosocial Integrity
Maintenance Questions 181 to 240
Questions 121 to 180
,Section A - Management OF CARE
Q1.
In a patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) managed with
lung-protective ventilation, which ventilator setting adjustment would most directly reduce
the risk of ventilator-induced lung injury while maintaining adequate oxygenation?
A. Increase positive end-expiratory pressure B. Increase tidal volume to 8 mL/kg
(PEEP) to 20 cm H2O predicted body weight
C. Decrease plateau pressure to less than D. Increase respiratory rate to achieve
30 cm H2O PaCO2 of 35 mm Hg
Correct: C - Decrease plateau pressure to less than 30 cm H2O
Rationale:Limiting plateau pressure to <30 cm H2O is the cornerstone of lung-protective
ventilation to prevent volutrauma and barotrauma. High PEEP may improve oxygenation but
can cause overdistention; high tidal volumes exacerbate lung injury; increasing respiratory
rate may cause dynamic hyperinflation.
Q2.
A patient with septic shock and acute kidney injury is receiving norepinephrine and
vasopressin. The nurse notes a decrease in urine output to 0.2 mL/kg/hr over 4 hours.
Which intervention should be prioritized?
A. Administer a 500 mL bolus of 0.9% B. Increase the norepinephrine infusion rate
normal saline
C. Start continuous renal replacement D. Assess mean arterial pressure (MAP)
therapy (CRRT) and cardiac output
Correct: D - Assess mean arterial pressure (MAP) and cardiac output
Rationale:In septic shock with oliguria, the priority is to assess hemodynamic status (MAP,
cardiac output) to determine if renal hypoperfusion is due to inadequate perfusion pressure or
low cardiac output. Fluid bolus may be harmful if the patient is fluid overloaded; increasing
vasopressors without assessment may worsen tissue perfusion; CRRT is not first-line for
oliguria without life-threatening complications.
Q3.
A patient with a history of atrial fibrillation is started on warfarin. The nurse reviews the
patient's medication list and identifies a potential drug interaction that could significantly
increase the international normalized ratio (INR). Which medication is most likely
responsible?
Page 3
, Section A - Management OF CARE
A. Acetaminophen 650 mg every 6 hours as B. Omeprazole 20 mg daily
needed
C. Metoprolol succinate 50 mg daily D. Levothyroxine 100 mcg daily
Correct: A - Acetaminophen 650 mg every 6 hours as needed
Rationale:Acetaminophen, especially at high doses, potentiates warfarin by inhibiting vitamin
K-dependent clotting factor synthesis, leading to elevated INR. Omeprazole has minor
interaction; metoprolol and levothyroxine do not significantly affect warfarin metabolism.
Q4.
A patient with a traumatic brain injury has an intracranial pressure (ICP) monitor in place.
The nurse notes that the ICP waveform is dampened and the patient's mean arterial
pressure (MAP) is 70 mm Hg. Which nursing action is most appropriate?
A. Reposition the patient with head of bed at B. Flush the ICP monitor with 0.5 mL of
30 degrees sterile saline
C. Administer mannitol 0.5 g/kg D. Check the level of the transducer and
intravenously recalibrate
Correct: D - Check the level of the transducer and recalibrate
Rationale:A dampened waveform often indicates improper transducer leveling or air bubbles.
The transducer must be zeroed at the level of the foramen of Monro. Repositioning may affect
ICP but does not correct waveform dampening; flushing a monitor without checking may
cause infection; mannitol is for elevated ICP, not waveform issues.
Q5.
A patient with decompensated cirrhosis and ascites is prescribed spironolactone 100 mg
daily. The nurse notes a serum potassium level of 5.8 mEq/L. Which action should the
nurse take first?
A. Administer sodium polystyrene sulfonate B. Hold the spironolactone and notify the
(Kayexalate) provider
C. Administer the spironolactone with a D. Obtain a stat electrocardiogram (ECG)
low-potassium diet
Correct: B - Hold the spironolactone and notify the provider
Rationale:Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic; with hyperkalemia (K+ >5.5), it
should be held to prevent life-threatening arrhythmias. Kayexalate may be used but is not
first-line; administering the drug would worsen hyperkalemia; ECG is important but holding
the drug is the immediate priority.
Page 4
