NURS 5434 FAMILY III FINAL
EXAM PRACTICE QUESTIONS
WITH CORRECT ANSWERS/ UTA
LATEST MOCK PRACTICE SET
168 Questions with Answers and Detailed Rationales
100 PERCENT GUARANTEED PASS
INSTANT DOWNLOAD ANSWERS INCLUDED
IMPORTANCE OF THIS DOCUMENT
This comprehensive examination preparation guide has been meticulously developed to help you succeed in the
NURS 5434 FAMILY III FINAL EXAM PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS/ UTA NURS 5434
FNP 3 FINAL EXAM PREP TEST BANK (NEW!). It contains 168 carefully selected questions that reflect the most
current exam content and testing strategies. Each question is accompanied by a correct answer and a detailed
rationale that explains the underlying concepts and reasoning required to master the material.
Self-Assessment – Test your knowledge and Exam Preparation – Familiarize yourself with the
identify areas requiring further question format and content
study areas
Concept Reinforcement – Deepen your Confidence Building – Develop test-taking
understanding through strategies and reduce
evidence-based exam anxiety
rationales
Time Management – Practice answering questions
under simulated exam
conditions
Review Summary 168 Questions
Foundations - Application - NURS 5434 Family III WITH Correct / UTA NURS 5434 FNP 3 PREP BANK
NEW NURS 5434 Family III WITH Correct / UTA NURS 5434 FNP 3 PREP BANK NEW University
All answers with rationales
,Table of Contents
Section A - Cardiovascular Disorders Section B - Respiratory Disorders
Questions 1 to 42 Questions 43 to 84
Section C - Endocrine AND Metabolic Section D - Neurological Disorders
Disorders Questions 127 to 168
Questions 85 to 126
,Section A - Cardiovascular Disorders
Q1.
A patient with hypertension, stage 2, has a history of gout. Which initial antihypertensive
combination is most appropriate to avoid exacerbation of gout?
A. Hydrochlorothiazide + lisinopril B. Amlodipine + losartan
C. Metoprolol + chlorthalidone D. Furosemide + spironolactone
Correct: B - Amlodipine + losartan
Rationale:
Thiazide diuretics (hydrochlorothiazide, chlorthalidone) can increase serum uric acid and
precipitate gout. Amlodipine (calcium channel blocker) and losartan (ARB) are safe options;
losartan may even have a mild uricosuric effect. Beta-blockers and loop diuretics are less
preferred and may also affect uric acid. Therefore, amlodipine + losartan is most appropriate.
Q2.
A 55-year-old patient with no prior CVD, LDL-C 190 mg/dL, and no other risk factors.
According to ACC/AHA guidelines, what is the next step?
A. Calculate 10-year ASCVD risk and initiate B. Initiate moderate-intensity statin therapy
statin if 7.5%
C. Initiate high-intensity statin therapy D. Lifestyle modification only, recheck lipids
in 6 months
Correct: C - Initiate high-intensity statin therapy
Rationale:
An LDL-C 190 mg/dL indicates familial hypercholesterolemia and high cardiovascular risk.
ACC/AHA guidelines recommend high-intensity statin therapy regardless of 10-year risk
calculation. Lifestyle modification alone is inadequate; moderate-intensity may be insufficient.
Therefore, high-intensity statin is indicated.
Q3.
A patient with a family history of colorectal cancer in a first-degree relative diagnosed at
age 50. According to USPSTF guidelines, at what age should this patient begin colorectal
cancer screening?
A. Age 40 B. Age 45
C. Age 50 D. Age 10 years before the youngest
affected relative's diagnosis
Page 3
, Section A - Cardiovascular Disorders
Correct: A - Age 40
Rationale:
For individuals with a first-degree relative with colorectal cancer, screening should begin at
age 40 or 10 years before the youngest affected relative's diagnosis, whichever is earlier. The
relative was diagnosed at 50, so 10 years earlier would be 40. General population screening
starts at 45, but this patient has increased risk.
Q4.
A patient presents with acute low back pain for 2 weeks with no radiation. Which finding
would warrant immediate further evaluation?
A. Pain that worsens with flexion B. History of osteoporosis
C. Unexplained fever and weight loss D. Positive straight leg raise test
Correct: C - Unexplained fever and weight loss
Rationale:
Red flags for serious pathology include unexplained fever, weight loss, history of cancer,
night pain, and neurological deficits. Unexplained fever and weight loss may indicate infection
or malignancy. Pain with flexion is typical for mechanical back pain; osteoporosis alone not a
red flag; positive straight leg raise suggests radiculopathy but not necessarily emergent.
Q5.
A patient with major depressive disorder, no prior medication trials, reports poor sleep
and low energy. Which antidepressant is most appropriate given a low risk of sexual
dysfunction and minimal drug interactions?
A. Sertraline B. Bupropion
C. Venlafaxine D. Amitriptyline
Correct: B - Bupropion
Rationale:
Bupropion has a low incidence of sexual dysfunction and minimal CYP450 interactions.
Sertraline and venlafaxine (SSRI/SNRI) commonly cause sexual side effects. Amitriptyline
(TCA) has significant anticholinergic effects and drug interactions. Bupropion is also
activating, which may help with low energy, but caution in anxiety; however, in this case it is
appropriate.
Q6.
An ultrasound reveals a 1.5 cm thyroid nodule with mixed solid and cystic components,
microcalcifications, and irregular margins. According to ATA guidelines, what is the next
step?
Page 4
EXAM PRACTICE QUESTIONS
WITH CORRECT ANSWERS/ UTA
LATEST MOCK PRACTICE SET
168 Questions with Answers and Detailed Rationales
100 PERCENT GUARANTEED PASS
INSTANT DOWNLOAD ANSWERS INCLUDED
IMPORTANCE OF THIS DOCUMENT
This comprehensive examination preparation guide has been meticulously developed to help you succeed in the
NURS 5434 FAMILY III FINAL EXAM PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS/ UTA NURS 5434
FNP 3 FINAL EXAM PREP TEST BANK (NEW!). It contains 168 carefully selected questions that reflect the most
current exam content and testing strategies. Each question is accompanied by a correct answer and a detailed
rationale that explains the underlying concepts and reasoning required to master the material.
Self-Assessment – Test your knowledge and Exam Preparation – Familiarize yourself with the
identify areas requiring further question format and content
study areas
Concept Reinforcement – Deepen your Confidence Building – Develop test-taking
understanding through strategies and reduce
evidence-based exam anxiety
rationales
Time Management – Practice answering questions
under simulated exam
conditions
Review Summary 168 Questions
Foundations - Application - NURS 5434 Family III WITH Correct / UTA NURS 5434 FNP 3 PREP BANK
NEW NURS 5434 Family III WITH Correct / UTA NURS 5434 FNP 3 PREP BANK NEW University
All answers with rationales
,Table of Contents
Section A - Cardiovascular Disorders Section B - Respiratory Disorders
Questions 1 to 42 Questions 43 to 84
Section C - Endocrine AND Metabolic Section D - Neurological Disorders
Disorders Questions 127 to 168
Questions 85 to 126
,Section A - Cardiovascular Disorders
Q1.
A patient with hypertension, stage 2, has a history of gout. Which initial antihypertensive
combination is most appropriate to avoid exacerbation of gout?
A. Hydrochlorothiazide + lisinopril B. Amlodipine + losartan
C. Metoprolol + chlorthalidone D. Furosemide + spironolactone
Correct: B - Amlodipine + losartan
Rationale:
Thiazide diuretics (hydrochlorothiazide, chlorthalidone) can increase serum uric acid and
precipitate gout. Amlodipine (calcium channel blocker) and losartan (ARB) are safe options;
losartan may even have a mild uricosuric effect. Beta-blockers and loop diuretics are less
preferred and may also affect uric acid. Therefore, amlodipine + losartan is most appropriate.
Q2.
A 55-year-old patient with no prior CVD, LDL-C 190 mg/dL, and no other risk factors.
According to ACC/AHA guidelines, what is the next step?
A. Calculate 10-year ASCVD risk and initiate B. Initiate moderate-intensity statin therapy
statin if 7.5%
C. Initiate high-intensity statin therapy D. Lifestyle modification only, recheck lipids
in 6 months
Correct: C - Initiate high-intensity statin therapy
Rationale:
An LDL-C 190 mg/dL indicates familial hypercholesterolemia and high cardiovascular risk.
ACC/AHA guidelines recommend high-intensity statin therapy regardless of 10-year risk
calculation. Lifestyle modification alone is inadequate; moderate-intensity may be insufficient.
Therefore, high-intensity statin is indicated.
Q3.
A patient with a family history of colorectal cancer in a first-degree relative diagnosed at
age 50. According to USPSTF guidelines, at what age should this patient begin colorectal
cancer screening?
A. Age 40 B. Age 45
C. Age 50 D. Age 10 years before the youngest
affected relative's diagnosis
Page 3
, Section A - Cardiovascular Disorders
Correct: A - Age 40
Rationale:
For individuals with a first-degree relative with colorectal cancer, screening should begin at
age 40 or 10 years before the youngest affected relative's diagnosis, whichever is earlier. The
relative was diagnosed at 50, so 10 years earlier would be 40. General population screening
starts at 45, but this patient has increased risk.
Q4.
A patient presents with acute low back pain for 2 weeks with no radiation. Which finding
would warrant immediate further evaluation?
A. Pain that worsens with flexion B. History of osteoporosis
C. Unexplained fever and weight loss D. Positive straight leg raise test
Correct: C - Unexplained fever and weight loss
Rationale:
Red flags for serious pathology include unexplained fever, weight loss, history of cancer,
night pain, and neurological deficits. Unexplained fever and weight loss may indicate infection
or malignancy. Pain with flexion is typical for mechanical back pain; osteoporosis alone not a
red flag; positive straight leg raise suggests radiculopathy but not necessarily emergent.
Q5.
A patient with major depressive disorder, no prior medication trials, reports poor sleep
and low energy. Which antidepressant is most appropriate given a low risk of sexual
dysfunction and minimal drug interactions?
A. Sertraline B. Bupropion
C. Venlafaxine D. Amitriptyline
Correct: B - Bupropion
Rationale:
Bupropion has a low incidence of sexual dysfunction and minimal CYP450 interactions.
Sertraline and venlafaxine (SSRI/SNRI) commonly cause sexual side effects. Amitriptyline
(TCA) has significant anticholinergic effects and drug interactions. Bupropion is also
activating, which may help with low energy, but caution in anxiety; however, in this case it is
appropriate.
Q6.
An ultrasound reveals a 1.5 cm thyroid nodule with mixed solid and cystic components,
microcalcifications, and irregular margins. According to ATA guidelines, what is the next
step?
Page 4
