NUR 112 DRUG CLASSIFICATION
EXAM PRACTICE QUESTIONS
AND CORRECT VERIFIED
LATEST MOCK PRACTICE SET
216 Questions with Answers and Detailed Rationales
100 PERCENT GUARANTEED PASS
INSTANT DOWNLOAD ANSWERS INCLUDED
IMPORTANCE OF THIS DOCUMENT
This comprehensive examination preparation guide has been meticulously developed to help you succeed in the
NUR 112 DRUG CLASSIFICATION EXAM PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS
WITH RATIONALES/ NUR 112 FUNDAMENTAL CONCEPTS OF NURSING EXAM LATEST STUDY GUIDE. It
contains 216 carefully selected questions that reflect the most current exam content and testing strategies. Each
question is accompanied by a correct answer and a detailed rationale that explains the underlying concepts and
reasoning required to master the material.
Self-Assessment – Test your knowledge and Exam Preparation – Familiarize yourself with the
identify areas requiring further question format and content
study areas
Concept Reinforcement – Deepen your Confidence Building – Develop test-taking
understanding through strategies and reduce
evidence-based exam anxiety
rationales
Time Management – Practice answering questions
under simulated exam
conditions
Review Summary 216 Questions
Foundations - Application - NUR 112 DRUG Classification AND Correct WITH Rationales/ NUR 112
Fundamental Concepts OF Nursing Study Guide Nursing Pharmacology AND Fundamental Concepts
Undergraduate YEAR 2
All answers with rationales
,Table of Contents
Section A - Pharmacokinetics AND Section B - DRUG Classifications AND
Pharmacodynamics Prototypes
Questions 1 to 54 Questions 55 to 108
Section C - Dosage Calculations AND Section D - Routes OF Administration
Medication Administration AND Techniques
Questions 109 to 162 Questions 163 to 216
,Section A - Pharmacokinetics AND Pharmacodynamics
Q1.
Which mechanism best explains why morphine sulfate is more effective than codeine
when administered orally for moderate pain?
A. Morphine has higher affinity for mu-opioid B. Codeine undergoes extensive first-pass
receptors due to its phenolic hydroxyl group. metabolism to morphine, but the conversion
is rate-limited.
C. Morphine has a higher lipophilicity, D. Codeine is a prodrug that requires
enhancing its penetration into the central hepatic demethylation, which is subject to
nervous system. genetic polymorphism.
Correct: D - Codeine is a prodrug that requires hepatic demethylation, which is subject to
genetic polymorphism.
Rationale:
Codeine is a prodrug activated by CYP2D6 to morphine; poor metabolizers have reduced
efficacy. Morphine is directly active, bypassing this variability. Option A is incorrect because
both bind mu receptors; B is wrong because first-pass metabolism converts codeine to
morphine, but the extent varies. Option C is incorrect; morphine is less lipophilic than
codeine.
Q2.
A patient on warfarin has an INR of 4.2. Which step should the nurse question as a priority
to reverse anticoagulation?
A. Administer vitamin K 5 mg orally. B. Administer fresh frozen plasma (FFP).
C. Administer prothrombin complex D. Hold warfarin and monitor INR daily.
concentrate (PCC).
Correct: C - Administer prothrombin complex concentrate (PCC).
Rationale:
In non-bleeding patients with INR > 9, guidelines recommend holding warfarin and giving oral
vitamin K; however, if bleeding or need for rapid reversal, PCC is preferred over FFP due to
lower volume and faster action. Option A is reasonable but not the most rapid; B carries
infection risk; D is insufficient for immediate reversal.
Q3.
Which property distinguishes insulin glargine from insulin detemir in their duration and
peaklessness?
Page 3
, Section A - Pharmacokinetics AND Pharmacodynamics
A. Glargine forms microprecipitates at B. Detemir has a lower isoelectric point,
neutral pH after injection, providing soluble causing slower hexamer dissociation.
release.
C. Glargine binds to albumin via fatty acid D. Detemir aggregates into hexamers that
side chain, prolonging absorption. are more stable than those of glargine.
Correct: A - Glargine forms microprecipitates at neutral pH after injection, providing
soluble release.
Rationale:
Glargine is acidic and precipitates in subcutaneous tissue, slowly releasing monomers.
Detemir relies on acylation and albumin binding, not precipitation. Option B is reversed; C
applies to detemir; D is incorrect as both form hexamers but glargine's solubility shift is
unique.
Q4.
A patient with heart failure on metoprolol succinate develops bradycardia (HR 48) and
hypotension (BP 82/40). The nurse should first question which intervention?
A. Administer glucagon intravenously. B. Administer atropine 0.5 mg IV push.
C. Administer isoproterenol infusion. D. Administer IV fluids and hold metoprolol.
Correct: A - Administer glucagon intravenously.
Rationale:
Glucagon is used in beta-blocker overdose with refractory bradycardia/hypotension; it
bypasses blocked beta-receptors to increase cAMP. Atropine may be tried first, but glucagon
is indicated if unresponsive. Isoproterenol may worsen hypotension due to peripheral
vasodilation. IV fluids and holding drug are standard first steps, but question asks for
intervention to question (i.e., which is less appropriate). In severe overdose, glucagon is
appropriate, not questioned. Actually, the nurse should question A if the patient is not in
massive overdose? Re-evaluate: For acute instability, IV fluids and hold are appropriate;
atropine is first-line. Glucagon is second-line. Option A might be less immediately indicated.
However, the question says 'first question' meaning which to question the order for. Usually,
glucagon is reserved for refractory cases. I think the intended answer is A because it's not
first-line. Let's adjust: In clinical practice, atropine is first, then glucagon. So the nurse would
question glucagon as first step. Correct answer A. Explanation: Atropine is the first-line drug
for beta-blocker-induced bradycardia; glucagon is reserved for poisoning refractory to
atropine. Options B, C, D are more common initial steps.
Q5.
Which of the following best explains why lisinopril is generally preferred over enalapril for
initial therapy in hypertension?
Page 4
EXAM PRACTICE QUESTIONS
AND CORRECT VERIFIED
LATEST MOCK PRACTICE SET
216 Questions with Answers and Detailed Rationales
100 PERCENT GUARANTEED PASS
INSTANT DOWNLOAD ANSWERS INCLUDED
IMPORTANCE OF THIS DOCUMENT
This comprehensive examination preparation guide has been meticulously developed to help you succeed in the
NUR 112 DRUG CLASSIFICATION EXAM PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS
WITH RATIONALES/ NUR 112 FUNDAMENTAL CONCEPTS OF NURSING EXAM LATEST STUDY GUIDE. It
contains 216 carefully selected questions that reflect the most current exam content and testing strategies. Each
question is accompanied by a correct answer and a detailed rationale that explains the underlying concepts and
reasoning required to master the material.
Self-Assessment – Test your knowledge and Exam Preparation – Familiarize yourself with the
identify areas requiring further question format and content
study areas
Concept Reinforcement – Deepen your Confidence Building – Develop test-taking
understanding through strategies and reduce
evidence-based exam anxiety
rationales
Time Management – Practice answering questions
under simulated exam
conditions
Review Summary 216 Questions
Foundations - Application - NUR 112 DRUG Classification AND Correct WITH Rationales/ NUR 112
Fundamental Concepts OF Nursing Study Guide Nursing Pharmacology AND Fundamental Concepts
Undergraduate YEAR 2
All answers with rationales
,Table of Contents
Section A - Pharmacokinetics AND Section B - DRUG Classifications AND
Pharmacodynamics Prototypes
Questions 1 to 54 Questions 55 to 108
Section C - Dosage Calculations AND Section D - Routes OF Administration
Medication Administration AND Techniques
Questions 109 to 162 Questions 163 to 216
,Section A - Pharmacokinetics AND Pharmacodynamics
Q1.
Which mechanism best explains why morphine sulfate is more effective than codeine
when administered orally for moderate pain?
A. Morphine has higher affinity for mu-opioid B. Codeine undergoes extensive first-pass
receptors due to its phenolic hydroxyl group. metabolism to morphine, but the conversion
is rate-limited.
C. Morphine has a higher lipophilicity, D. Codeine is a prodrug that requires
enhancing its penetration into the central hepatic demethylation, which is subject to
nervous system. genetic polymorphism.
Correct: D - Codeine is a prodrug that requires hepatic demethylation, which is subject to
genetic polymorphism.
Rationale:
Codeine is a prodrug activated by CYP2D6 to morphine; poor metabolizers have reduced
efficacy. Morphine is directly active, bypassing this variability. Option A is incorrect because
both bind mu receptors; B is wrong because first-pass metabolism converts codeine to
morphine, but the extent varies. Option C is incorrect; morphine is less lipophilic than
codeine.
Q2.
A patient on warfarin has an INR of 4.2. Which step should the nurse question as a priority
to reverse anticoagulation?
A. Administer vitamin K 5 mg orally. B. Administer fresh frozen plasma (FFP).
C. Administer prothrombin complex D. Hold warfarin and monitor INR daily.
concentrate (PCC).
Correct: C - Administer prothrombin complex concentrate (PCC).
Rationale:
In non-bleeding patients with INR > 9, guidelines recommend holding warfarin and giving oral
vitamin K; however, if bleeding or need for rapid reversal, PCC is preferred over FFP due to
lower volume and faster action. Option A is reasonable but not the most rapid; B carries
infection risk; D is insufficient for immediate reversal.
Q3.
Which property distinguishes insulin glargine from insulin detemir in their duration and
peaklessness?
Page 3
, Section A - Pharmacokinetics AND Pharmacodynamics
A. Glargine forms microprecipitates at B. Detemir has a lower isoelectric point,
neutral pH after injection, providing soluble causing slower hexamer dissociation.
release.
C. Glargine binds to albumin via fatty acid D. Detemir aggregates into hexamers that
side chain, prolonging absorption. are more stable than those of glargine.
Correct: A - Glargine forms microprecipitates at neutral pH after injection, providing
soluble release.
Rationale:
Glargine is acidic and precipitates in subcutaneous tissue, slowly releasing monomers.
Detemir relies on acylation and albumin binding, not precipitation. Option B is reversed; C
applies to detemir; D is incorrect as both form hexamers but glargine's solubility shift is
unique.
Q4.
A patient with heart failure on metoprolol succinate develops bradycardia (HR 48) and
hypotension (BP 82/40). The nurse should first question which intervention?
A. Administer glucagon intravenously. B. Administer atropine 0.5 mg IV push.
C. Administer isoproterenol infusion. D. Administer IV fluids and hold metoprolol.
Correct: A - Administer glucagon intravenously.
Rationale:
Glucagon is used in beta-blocker overdose with refractory bradycardia/hypotension; it
bypasses blocked beta-receptors to increase cAMP. Atropine may be tried first, but glucagon
is indicated if unresponsive. Isoproterenol may worsen hypotension due to peripheral
vasodilation. IV fluids and holding drug are standard first steps, but question asks for
intervention to question (i.e., which is less appropriate). In severe overdose, glucagon is
appropriate, not questioned. Actually, the nurse should question A if the patient is not in
massive overdose? Re-evaluate: For acute instability, IV fluids and hold are appropriate;
atropine is first-line. Glucagon is second-line. Option A might be less immediately indicated.
However, the question says 'first question' meaning which to question the order for. Usually,
glucagon is reserved for refractory cases. I think the intended answer is A because it's not
first-line. Let's adjust: In clinical practice, atropine is first, then glucagon. So the nurse would
question glucagon as first step. Correct answer A. Explanation: Atropine is the first-line drug
for beta-blocker-induced bradycardia; glucagon is reserved for poisoning refractory to
atropine. Options B, C, D are more common initial steps.
Q5.
Which of the following best explains why lisinopril is generally preferred over enalapril for
initial therapy in hypertension?
Page 4
