LATEST QUESTIONS BANK FOR
HESI RN EXIT EXAM PREP WITH
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
LATEST MOCK PRACTICE SET
210 Questions with Answers and Detailed Rationales
100 PERCENT GUARANTEED PASS
INSTANT DOWNLOAD ANSWERS INCLUDED
IMPORTANCE OF THIS DOCUMENT
This comprehensive examination preparation guide has been meticulously developed to help you succeed in the
LATEST QUESTIONS BANK FOR HESI RN EXIT EXAM PREP WITH QUESTIONS AND CORRECT VERIFIED
ANSWERS/ HESI EXIT RN & PN EXAM PREP TEST BANK LATEST (NEW!). It contains 210 carefully selected
questions that reflect the most current exam content and testing strategies. Each question is accompanied by a
correct answer and a detailed rationale that explains the underlying concepts and reasoning required to master
the material.
Self-Assessment – Test your knowledge and Exam Preparation – Familiarize yourself with the
identify areas requiring further question format and content
study areas
Concept Reinforcement – Deepen your Confidence Building – Develop test-taking
understanding through strategies and reduce
evidence-based exam anxiety
rationales
Time Management – Practice answering questions
under simulated exam
conditions
Review Summary 210 Questions
Foundations - Application - BANK FOR HESI RN EXIT PREP WITH AND Correct / HESI EXIT RN & PN
PREP BANK NEW Nursing HESI RN EXIT Preparation Undergraduate YEAR 4 / Graduate Entry-level
All answers with rationales
,Table of Contents
Section A - Management OF CARE Section B - Safety AND Infection
Questions 1 to 53 Control
Questions 54 to 106
Section C - Health Promotion AND Section D - Psychosocial Integrity
Maintenance Questions 160 to 210
Questions 107 to 159
,Section A - Management OF CARE
Q1.
A patient presents with acute-onset severe epigastric pain radiating to the back, vomiting,
and hypocalcemia. Serum lipase is 3 times the upper limit. Which assessment finding
most strongly indicates a poor prognosis?
A. Cullen sign and Grey Turner sign B. Hemoglobin drop of 2 g/dL over 6 hours
C. Serum calcium of 8.6 mg/dL D. White blood cell count of 14,500/µL
Correct: A - Cullen sign and Grey Turner sign
Rationale:
Cullen (periumbilical ecchymosis) and Grey Turner (flank ecchymosis) signs indicate
retroperitoneal hemorrhage, which is a marker of severe necrotizing pancreatitis with high
mortality. A hemoglobin drop (B) could suggest bleeding but is less specific; mild
hypocalcemia (C) is common; leukocytosis (D) is non-specific.
Q2.
A patient on a continuous heparin infusion has an aPTT of 120 seconds (therapeutic range
60-80). The nurse notes hematuria and coffee-ground emesis. What should the nurse do
first?
A. Administer protamine sulfate per protocol B. Stop the heparin infusion immediately
C. Draw aPTT and PT/INR stat D. Apply pressure to any visible bleeding
sites
Correct: B - Stop the heparin infusion immediately
Rationale:
The aPTT is supratherapeutic and the patient shows signs of major bleeding. The immediate
priority is to stop the heparin infusion (B). While protamine (A) may be needed, it should not
be the first action without verifying bleeding severity and obtaining orders; drawing labs (C)
and applying pressure (D) are secondary.
Q3.
The nurse is caring for a patient with new-onset atrial fibrillation. The patient is
hemodynamically stable but anxious. Which intervention should the nurse question if
ordered?
A. Administer metoprolol 5 mg IV push B. Start continuous telemetry monitoring
Page 3
, Section A - Management OF CARE
C. Prepare for synchronized cardioversion D. Obtain a transesophageal
echocardiogram
Correct: C - Prepare for synchronized cardioversion
Rationale:
Synchronized cardioversion (C) is indicated for unstable atrial fibrillation with hemodynamic
compromise. For a stable patient, rate control and anticoagulation are preferred. Metoprolol
(A) is appropriate for rate control; telemetry (B) and TEE (D) to rule out atrial clot before
cardioversion are standard but not the first step in a stable patient.
Q4.
A patient with CKD stage 4 has a serum potassium of 6.1 mEq/L. The nurse administers IV
calcium gluconate, insulin, and dextrose. Which ECG change must be present to justify
the calcium gluconate?
A. Peaked T waves B. Wide QRS complex
C. Prolonged PR interval D. ST segment depression
Correct: B - Wide QRS complex
Rationale:
Calcium gluconate reduces the risk of ventricular fibrillation by stabilizing the cardiac
membrane but is only indicated when ECG shows loss of P waves or QRS widening (B),
indicating severe hyperkalemia. Peaked T waves (A) alone warrant potassium-lowering
measures but not calcium; PR prolongation (C) and ST depression (D) are less specific.
Q5.
A patient with cirrhosis develops asterixis, confusion, and a serum ammonia of 120
mcg/dL. Which order should the nurse implement first?
A. Administer lactulose 30 mL orally B. Start a high-protein diet via NG tube
C. Give a normal saline bolus 500 mL D. Hold all sedative medications
Correct: A - Administer lactulose 30 mL orally
Rationale:
Lactulose (A) reduces ammonia absorption and is the first-line treatment for hepatic
encephalopathy. A high-protein diet (B) would worsen ammonia production; fluid bolus (C) is
not directly indicated; holding sedatives (D) is important but not the priority intervention for
acute encephalopathy.
Page 4
HESI RN EXIT EXAM PREP WITH
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
LATEST MOCK PRACTICE SET
210 Questions with Answers and Detailed Rationales
100 PERCENT GUARANTEED PASS
INSTANT DOWNLOAD ANSWERS INCLUDED
IMPORTANCE OF THIS DOCUMENT
This comprehensive examination preparation guide has been meticulously developed to help you succeed in the
LATEST QUESTIONS BANK FOR HESI RN EXIT EXAM PREP WITH QUESTIONS AND CORRECT VERIFIED
ANSWERS/ HESI EXIT RN & PN EXAM PREP TEST BANK LATEST (NEW!). It contains 210 carefully selected
questions that reflect the most current exam content and testing strategies. Each question is accompanied by a
correct answer and a detailed rationale that explains the underlying concepts and reasoning required to master
the material.
Self-Assessment – Test your knowledge and Exam Preparation – Familiarize yourself with the
identify areas requiring further question format and content
study areas
Concept Reinforcement – Deepen your Confidence Building – Develop test-taking
understanding through strategies and reduce
evidence-based exam anxiety
rationales
Time Management – Practice answering questions
under simulated exam
conditions
Review Summary 210 Questions
Foundations - Application - BANK FOR HESI RN EXIT PREP WITH AND Correct / HESI EXIT RN & PN
PREP BANK NEW Nursing HESI RN EXIT Preparation Undergraduate YEAR 4 / Graduate Entry-level
All answers with rationales
,Table of Contents
Section A - Management OF CARE Section B - Safety AND Infection
Questions 1 to 53 Control
Questions 54 to 106
Section C - Health Promotion AND Section D - Psychosocial Integrity
Maintenance Questions 160 to 210
Questions 107 to 159
,Section A - Management OF CARE
Q1.
A patient presents with acute-onset severe epigastric pain radiating to the back, vomiting,
and hypocalcemia. Serum lipase is 3 times the upper limit. Which assessment finding
most strongly indicates a poor prognosis?
A. Cullen sign and Grey Turner sign B. Hemoglobin drop of 2 g/dL over 6 hours
C. Serum calcium of 8.6 mg/dL D. White blood cell count of 14,500/µL
Correct: A - Cullen sign and Grey Turner sign
Rationale:
Cullen (periumbilical ecchymosis) and Grey Turner (flank ecchymosis) signs indicate
retroperitoneal hemorrhage, which is a marker of severe necrotizing pancreatitis with high
mortality. A hemoglobin drop (B) could suggest bleeding but is less specific; mild
hypocalcemia (C) is common; leukocytosis (D) is non-specific.
Q2.
A patient on a continuous heparin infusion has an aPTT of 120 seconds (therapeutic range
60-80). The nurse notes hematuria and coffee-ground emesis. What should the nurse do
first?
A. Administer protamine sulfate per protocol B. Stop the heparin infusion immediately
C. Draw aPTT and PT/INR stat D. Apply pressure to any visible bleeding
sites
Correct: B - Stop the heparin infusion immediately
Rationale:
The aPTT is supratherapeutic and the patient shows signs of major bleeding. The immediate
priority is to stop the heparin infusion (B). While protamine (A) may be needed, it should not
be the first action without verifying bleeding severity and obtaining orders; drawing labs (C)
and applying pressure (D) are secondary.
Q3.
The nurse is caring for a patient with new-onset atrial fibrillation. The patient is
hemodynamically stable but anxious. Which intervention should the nurse question if
ordered?
A. Administer metoprolol 5 mg IV push B. Start continuous telemetry monitoring
Page 3
, Section A - Management OF CARE
C. Prepare for synchronized cardioversion D. Obtain a transesophageal
echocardiogram
Correct: C - Prepare for synchronized cardioversion
Rationale:
Synchronized cardioversion (C) is indicated for unstable atrial fibrillation with hemodynamic
compromise. For a stable patient, rate control and anticoagulation are preferred. Metoprolol
(A) is appropriate for rate control; telemetry (B) and TEE (D) to rule out atrial clot before
cardioversion are standard but not the first step in a stable patient.
Q4.
A patient with CKD stage 4 has a serum potassium of 6.1 mEq/L. The nurse administers IV
calcium gluconate, insulin, and dextrose. Which ECG change must be present to justify
the calcium gluconate?
A. Peaked T waves B. Wide QRS complex
C. Prolonged PR interval D. ST segment depression
Correct: B - Wide QRS complex
Rationale:
Calcium gluconate reduces the risk of ventricular fibrillation by stabilizing the cardiac
membrane but is only indicated when ECG shows loss of P waves or QRS widening (B),
indicating severe hyperkalemia. Peaked T waves (A) alone warrant potassium-lowering
measures but not calcium; PR prolongation (C) and ST depression (D) are less specific.
Q5.
A patient with cirrhosis develops asterixis, confusion, and a serum ammonia of 120
mcg/dL. Which order should the nurse implement first?
A. Administer lactulose 30 mL orally B. Start a high-protein diet via NG tube
C. Give a normal saline bolus 500 mL D. Hold all sedative medications
Correct: A - Administer lactulose 30 mL orally
Rationale:
Lactulose (A) reduces ammonia absorption and is the first-line treatment for hepatic
encephalopathy. A high-protein diet (B) would worsen ammonia production; fluid bolus (C) is
not directly indicated; holding sedatives (D) is important but not the priority intervention for
acute encephalopathy.
Page 4
