HESI RN MED SURG VERSION A & B (2026/2027) ||
ACTUAL EXAM EACH EXAM CONTAINS 150 ||
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS
Question 1
A client with heart failure has an ejection fraction of 25%. The nurse understands this
indicates:
A) Normal cardiac function
B) Mildly reduced function
C) Severely reduced systolic function
D) Preserved ejection fraction heart failure
Answer: C - Normal ejection fraction is 55-70%. An EF of 25% indicates severely
impaired systolic function. The heart is pumping less than half the normal amount of
blood with each contraction .
Question 2
A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. Which food should the nurse
encourage the client to increase in the diet?
A) Cheese
B) Bananas
C) White rice
D) Applesauce
Answer: B - Furosemide causes potassium loss. Bananas are rich in potassium and help
prevent hypokalemia. Other potassium-rich foods include oranges, potatoes, and
spinach .
Question 3
A client with a history of myocardial infarction is prescribed atorvastatin. The nurse
should teach the client that this medication:
,A) Is taken only when chest pain occurs
B) Lowers cholesterol and reduces the risk of future cardiac events
C) Replaces the need for a heart-healthy diet
D) Should be taken on an empty stomach for best absorption
Answer: B - Statins lower LDL cholesterol and reduce cardiovascular risk. They are taken
daily regardless of symptoms and work best with a heart-healthy diet .
Question 4
A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is started on a heparin infusion. The nurse
should have which antidote available?
A) Vitamin K
B) Protamine sulfate
C) Naloxone
D) Flumazenil
Answer: B - Protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin. Vitamin K reverses warfarin.
Naloxone reverses opioids. Flumazenil reverses benzodiazepines .
Question 5
The nurse is assessing a client with chest pressure unrelieved by rest. The client appears
agitated. The nurse recognizes agitation as:
A) A normal response to pain
B) An early sign of hypoperfusion
C) A medication side effect
D) A psychological reaction
Answer: B - Agitation in a client with chest pressure is a critical sign of hypoperfusion,
indicating decreased oxygenation to the brain and requiring immediate intervention .
Question 6
A client with heart failure is prescribed digoxin. The nurse should instruct the client to
report which symptom?
,A) Increased appetite
B) Nausea, vomiting, and yellow-green halos around lights
C) Weight loss
D) Increased energy
Answer: B - These are classic signs of digoxin toxicity. Other signs include bradycardia,
anorexia, and confusion .
Question 7
A client with dyspnea has a pulse oximetry reading of 85% and is tachypneic. What is
the priority nursing action?
A) Administer oxygen
B) Position the client in high Fowler's
C) Notify the healthcare provider
D) Assess lung sounds
Answer: A - Oxygen saturation of 85% indicates severe hypoxemia requiring immediate
oxygen administration. High Fowler's positioning may help, but oxygenation is the
priority .
Question 8
A client with hypertension is prescribed a low-sodium diet. Which food choice indicates
understanding of the teaching?
A) Canned soup
B) Fresh grilled chicken breast
C) Processed cheese
D) Pickled vegetables
Answer: B - Fresh, unprocessed foods are naturally low in sodium. Canned soups,
processed cheeses, and pickled foods are high in sodium and should be avoided .
, Question 9
A client is receiving a blood transfusion and develops urticaria and itching. What is the
priority nursing action?
A) Stop the transfusion immediately
B) Slow the transfusion and administer diphenhydramine as ordered
C) Increase the transfusion rate
D) Administer epinephrine immediately
Answer: B - Urticaria and itching indicate a mild allergic reaction (urticarial reaction).
The transfusion should be slowed, and diphenhydramine administered as ordered. The
transfusion should be stopped if symptoms worsen .
Question 10
A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed sevelamer. The nurse should explain
that this medication:
A) Increases calcium absorption
B) Binds dietary phosphate in the gastrointestinal tract
C) Stimulates erythropoietin production
D) Lowers blood pressure
Answer: B - Sevelamer is a phosphate binder that prevents absorption of dietary
phosphate, helping manage hyperphosphatemia common in chronic kidney disease .
Question 11
A client with a history of myocardial infarction is prescribed aspirin daily. The nurse
understands that the purpose of this medication is to:
A) Relieve chest pain
B) Prevent platelet aggregation
C) Reduce inflammation
D) Lower blood pressure
Answer: B - Low-dose aspirin is prescribed for its antiplatelet effect, reducing the risk of
thrombus formation and preventing recurrent myocardial infarction.
ACTUAL EXAM EACH EXAM CONTAINS 150 ||
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS
Question 1
A client with heart failure has an ejection fraction of 25%. The nurse understands this
indicates:
A) Normal cardiac function
B) Mildly reduced function
C) Severely reduced systolic function
D) Preserved ejection fraction heart failure
Answer: C - Normal ejection fraction is 55-70%. An EF of 25% indicates severely
impaired systolic function. The heart is pumping less than half the normal amount of
blood with each contraction .
Question 2
A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. Which food should the nurse
encourage the client to increase in the diet?
A) Cheese
B) Bananas
C) White rice
D) Applesauce
Answer: B - Furosemide causes potassium loss. Bananas are rich in potassium and help
prevent hypokalemia. Other potassium-rich foods include oranges, potatoes, and
spinach .
Question 3
A client with a history of myocardial infarction is prescribed atorvastatin. The nurse
should teach the client that this medication:
,A) Is taken only when chest pain occurs
B) Lowers cholesterol and reduces the risk of future cardiac events
C) Replaces the need for a heart-healthy diet
D) Should be taken on an empty stomach for best absorption
Answer: B - Statins lower LDL cholesterol and reduce cardiovascular risk. They are taken
daily regardless of symptoms and work best with a heart-healthy diet .
Question 4
A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is started on a heparin infusion. The nurse
should have which antidote available?
A) Vitamin K
B) Protamine sulfate
C) Naloxone
D) Flumazenil
Answer: B - Protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin. Vitamin K reverses warfarin.
Naloxone reverses opioids. Flumazenil reverses benzodiazepines .
Question 5
The nurse is assessing a client with chest pressure unrelieved by rest. The client appears
agitated. The nurse recognizes agitation as:
A) A normal response to pain
B) An early sign of hypoperfusion
C) A medication side effect
D) A psychological reaction
Answer: B - Agitation in a client with chest pressure is a critical sign of hypoperfusion,
indicating decreased oxygenation to the brain and requiring immediate intervention .
Question 6
A client with heart failure is prescribed digoxin. The nurse should instruct the client to
report which symptom?
,A) Increased appetite
B) Nausea, vomiting, and yellow-green halos around lights
C) Weight loss
D) Increased energy
Answer: B - These are classic signs of digoxin toxicity. Other signs include bradycardia,
anorexia, and confusion .
Question 7
A client with dyspnea has a pulse oximetry reading of 85% and is tachypneic. What is
the priority nursing action?
A) Administer oxygen
B) Position the client in high Fowler's
C) Notify the healthcare provider
D) Assess lung sounds
Answer: A - Oxygen saturation of 85% indicates severe hypoxemia requiring immediate
oxygen administration. High Fowler's positioning may help, but oxygenation is the
priority .
Question 8
A client with hypertension is prescribed a low-sodium diet. Which food choice indicates
understanding of the teaching?
A) Canned soup
B) Fresh grilled chicken breast
C) Processed cheese
D) Pickled vegetables
Answer: B - Fresh, unprocessed foods are naturally low in sodium. Canned soups,
processed cheeses, and pickled foods are high in sodium and should be avoided .
, Question 9
A client is receiving a blood transfusion and develops urticaria and itching. What is the
priority nursing action?
A) Stop the transfusion immediately
B) Slow the transfusion and administer diphenhydramine as ordered
C) Increase the transfusion rate
D) Administer epinephrine immediately
Answer: B - Urticaria and itching indicate a mild allergic reaction (urticarial reaction).
The transfusion should be slowed, and diphenhydramine administered as ordered. The
transfusion should be stopped if symptoms worsen .
Question 10
A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed sevelamer. The nurse should explain
that this medication:
A) Increases calcium absorption
B) Binds dietary phosphate in the gastrointestinal tract
C) Stimulates erythropoietin production
D) Lowers blood pressure
Answer: B - Sevelamer is a phosphate binder that prevents absorption of dietary
phosphate, helping manage hyperphosphatemia common in chronic kidney disease .
Question 11
A client with a history of myocardial infarction is prescribed aspirin daily. The nurse
understands that the purpose of this medication is to:
A) Relieve chest pain
B) Prevent platelet aggregation
C) Reduce inflammation
D) Lower blood pressure
Answer: B - Low-dose aspirin is prescribed for its antiplatelet effect, reducing the risk of
thrombus formation and preventing recurrent myocardial infarction.
