CALIFORNIA LICENSED VOCATIONAL NURSE (NCLEX-PN)
PRACTICE EXAMINATION EDITION 2026-2027 AND
CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES
LATEST VERSION (VERIFIED ANSWERS) ALREADY
GRADED A+
1.The LPN/LVN is caring for a client who has developed dyspnea and an oxygen saturation of
88% on room air. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Notify the health care provider.
B. Place the client in a high Fowler’s position.
C. Obtain an order for a chest x-ray.
D. Administer an ordered analgesic.
Answer: B
Rationale: Positioning is the initial independent nursing intervention to improve ventilation
and oxygenation. Placing the client in high Fowler’s position expands lung capacity and can
quickly relieve dyspnea. While notifying the provider and obtaining a chest x-ray are
necessary, they do not provide immediate relief. An analgesic may suppress respirations and
is not the priority.
2. The LPN/LVN is reinforcing teaching for a client newly prescribed warfarin (Coumadin).
Which client statement indicates a need for further teaching?
A. “I will use an electric razor for shaving.”
B. “I will increase my intake of leafy green vegetables.”
C. “I will report any signs of bleeding to my provider.”
D. “I will take the medication at the same time each day.”
Answer: B
Rationale: Warfarin’s effectiveness is decreased by vitamin K, which is abundant in leafy
green vegetables. Increasing intake may reduce anticoagulation and increase clot risk. Using
an electric razor, reporting bleeding, and maintaining a consistent dosing schedule are all
correct actions.
,3. The LPN/LVN is collecting data from a client with a right-sided ischemic stroke. Which
finding would the nurse expect?
A. Aphasia
B. Left-sided weakness
C. Slow, cautious behavior
D. Impulsiveness and denial of deficits
Answer: D
Rationale: Right-sided strokes typically cause left-sided weakness and may present with
impulsivity, poor judgment, and denial of deficits (left neglect). Aphasia and slow, cautious
behavior are more characteristic of left-hemisphere strokes. Left-sided weakness can occur but
is not unique to right-sided strokes—both types present with contralateral weakness, but
behavioral changes are key distinguishing signs.
4. The LPN/LVN is reinforcing dietary instructions for a client with chronic kidney disease.
Which food choice indicates the client understands the need to limit phosphorus?
A. Chicken breast
B. Apple juice
C. Cheese
D. White rice
Answer: B
Rationale: Apple juice is low in phosphorus. Cheese is high in phosphorus and should be
limited. Chicken breast and white rice contain moderate amounts but not as high as dairy
products. Limiting phosphorus helps prevent bone disease and calcification complications in
renal failure.
5. The LPN/LVN is caring for a client who had a total hip arthroplasty 2 hours ago. Which
action would be most important to include in the plan of care?
A. Keep the client’s legs crossed at the ankles.
B. Place an abduction pillow between the client’s legs.
C. Encourage the client to sit in a low chair.
D. Apply the sequential compression devices only to the operative leg.
Answer: B
Rationale: An abduction pillow maintains hip joint alignment and prevents dislocation by
keeping the legs abducted. Crossing legs, sitting in a low chair, and applying compression
devices to only one leg all increase the risk of dislocation and thromboembolism.
6. The LPN/LVN receives a hand-off report. Which client should the nurse see first?
A. A client with pneumonia who has a temperature of 100.4°F (38°C).
,B. A client with heart failure who has 2+ pitting edema.
C. A client with a newly inserted chest tube and continuous bubbling in the water-seal
chamber.
D. A client with cirrhosis who is confused and has asterixis.
Answer: C
Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber of a chest tube indicates an air
leak, which may be a life-threatening emergency if the system is compromised. Confusion and
asterixis in cirrhosis are concerning but not as immediately critical as an air leak. Fever and
edema require attention but are lower priority.
7. The LPN/LVN is reinforcing teaching for a client about collecting a 24-hour urine specimen.
Which statement by the client would indicate correct understanding?
A. “I will collect the first voided specimen in the morning.”
B. “I will discard the first specimen and then collect all urine for the next 24 hours.”
C. “I will keep the urine container at room temperature.”
D. “I will drink at least 3 liters of fluid during the collection.”
Answer: B
Rationale: The 24-hour collection begins after discarding the first morning void and ends with
the first void the following morning. The specimen must be refrigerated or kept on ice. Forcing
fluids is not required and may alter results.
8. The LPN/LVN is caring for a client receiving a blood transfusion. Which finding requires
immediate intervention?
A. The client reports feeling chilled.
B. The client’s temperature rises by 1.0°F.
C. The client develops urticaria and wheezing.
D. The client’s blood pressure is 130/82 mm Hg.
Answer: C
Rationale: Urticaria and wheezing indicate a possible anaphylactic transfusion reaction, which
is life-threatening. The transfusion must be stopped immediately and the provider notified.
Chills and mild temperature elevation are common but do not require stopping the
transfusion unless accompanied by other signs of hemolysis. A blood pressure of 130/82 is
within acceptable limits.
9. The LPN/LVN is reinforcing teaching for a client newly prescribed phenelzine (Nardil).
Which food should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?
A. Baked chicken
B. Cheddar cheese
, C. White bread
D. Apples
Answer: B
Rationale: Phenelzine is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI); consuming tyramine-rich
foods such as aged cheese can precipitate a hypertensive crisis. The other foods are low in
tyramine and safe.
10. The LPN/LVN is assisting with a staff education program on infection control. Which
statement by a staff member indicates an understanding of standard precautions?
A. “I will wear gloves when touching any client’s intact skin.”
B. “I will wear a mask for all client contacts.”
C. “I will use alcohol-based hand rub only when hands are visibly soiled.”
D. “I will wear gloves when touching blood, body fluids, or mucous membranes.”
Answer: D
Rationale: Standard precautions require gloves whenever there is potential contact with
blood or body fluids. Gloves are not required for intact skin contact. Masks are not necessary
for all contacts. Hand hygiene with soap and water is required when hands are visibly soiled;
alcohol rub is used otherwise.
11. The LPN/LVN is collecting data from a client with suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT).
Which finding most strongly supports this diagnosis?
A. Bilateral pedal edema
B. Diminished pedal pulses
C. Unilateral calf swelling, warmth, and tenderness
D. Intermittent claudication
Answer: C
Rationale: DVT typically presents with unilateral swelling, warmth, and tenderness in the
affected extremity. Bilateral edema suggests a systemic problem. Diminished pulses are more
indicative of arterial insufficiency. Intermittent claudication is associated with peripheral
artery disease.
12. The LPN/LVN is reinforcing instructions for a client who will undergo a colonoscopy. Which
statement indicates the client understands the preparation?
A. “I can eat a light breakfast the morning of the procedure.”
B. “I need to drink a bowel-cleansing solution until my stool is clear.”
PRACTICE EXAMINATION EDITION 2026-2027 AND
CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES
LATEST VERSION (VERIFIED ANSWERS) ALREADY
GRADED A+
1.The LPN/LVN is caring for a client who has developed dyspnea and an oxygen saturation of
88% on room air. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Notify the health care provider.
B. Place the client in a high Fowler’s position.
C. Obtain an order for a chest x-ray.
D. Administer an ordered analgesic.
Answer: B
Rationale: Positioning is the initial independent nursing intervention to improve ventilation
and oxygenation. Placing the client in high Fowler’s position expands lung capacity and can
quickly relieve dyspnea. While notifying the provider and obtaining a chest x-ray are
necessary, they do not provide immediate relief. An analgesic may suppress respirations and
is not the priority.
2. The LPN/LVN is reinforcing teaching for a client newly prescribed warfarin (Coumadin).
Which client statement indicates a need for further teaching?
A. “I will use an electric razor for shaving.”
B. “I will increase my intake of leafy green vegetables.”
C. “I will report any signs of bleeding to my provider.”
D. “I will take the medication at the same time each day.”
Answer: B
Rationale: Warfarin’s effectiveness is decreased by vitamin K, which is abundant in leafy
green vegetables. Increasing intake may reduce anticoagulation and increase clot risk. Using
an electric razor, reporting bleeding, and maintaining a consistent dosing schedule are all
correct actions.
,3. The LPN/LVN is collecting data from a client with a right-sided ischemic stroke. Which
finding would the nurse expect?
A. Aphasia
B. Left-sided weakness
C. Slow, cautious behavior
D. Impulsiveness and denial of deficits
Answer: D
Rationale: Right-sided strokes typically cause left-sided weakness and may present with
impulsivity, poor judgment, and denial of deficits (left neglect). Aphasia and slow, cautious
behavior are more characteristic of left-hemisphere strokes. Left-sided weakness can occur but
is not unique to right-sided strokes—both types present with contralateral weakness, but
behavioral changes are key distinguishing signs.
4. The LPN/LVN is reinforcing dietary instructions for a client with chronic kidney disease.
Which food choice indicates the client understands the need to limit phosphorus?
A. Chicken breast
B. Apple juice
C. Cheese
D. White rice
Answer: B
Rationale: Apple juice is low in phosphorus. Cheese is high in phosphorus and should be
limited. Chicken breast and white rice contain moderate amounts but not as high as dairy
products. Limiting phosphorus helps prevent bone disease and calcification complications in
renal failure.
5. The LPN/LVN is caring for a client who had a total hip arthroplasty 2 hours ago. Which
action would be most important to include in the plan of care?
A. Keep the client’s legs crossed at the ankles.
B. Place an abduction pillow between the client’s legs.
C. Encourage the client to sit in a low chair.
D. Apply the sequential compression devices only to the operative leg.
Answer: B
Rationale: An abduction pillow maintains hip joint alignment and prevents dislocation by
keeping the legs abducted. Crossing legs, sitting in a low chair, and applying compression
devices to only one leg all increase the risk of dislocation and thromboembolism.
6. The LPN/LVN receives a hand-off report. Which client should the nurse see first?
A. A client with pneumonia who has a temperature of 100.4°F (38°C).
,B. A client with heart failure who has 2+ pitting edema.
C. A client with a newly inserted chest tube and continuous bubbling in the water-seal
chamber.
D. A client with cirrhosis who is confused and has asterixis.
Answer: C
Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber of a chest tube indicates an air
leak, which may be a life-threatening emergency if the system is compromised. Confusion and
asterixis in cirrhosis are concerning but not as immediately critical as an air leak. Fever and
edema require attention but are lower priority.
7. The LPN/LVN is reinforcing teaching for a client about collecting a 24-hour urine specimen.
Which statement by the client would indicate correct understanding?
A. “I will collect the first voided specimen in the morning.”
B. “I will discard the first specimen and then collect all urine for the next 24 hours.”
C. “I will keep the urine container at room temperature.”
D. “I will drink at least 3 liters of fluid during the collection.”
Answer: B
Rationale: The 24-hour collection begins after discarding the first morning void and ends with
the first void the following morning. The specimen must be refrigerated or kept on ice. Forcing
fluids is not required and may alter results.
8. The LPN/LVN is caring for a client receiving a blood transfusion. Which finding requires
immediate intervention?
A. The client reports feeling chilled.
B. The client’s temperature rises by 1.0°F.
C. The client develops urticaria and wheezing.
D. The client’s blood pressure is 130/82 mm Hg.
Answer: C
Rationale: Urticaria and wheezing indicate a possible anaphylactic transfusion reaction, which
is life-threatening. The transfusion must be stopped immediately and the provider notified.
Chills and mild temperature elevation are common but do not require stopping the
transfusion unless accompanied by other signs of hemolysis. A blood pressure of 130/82 is
within acceptable limits.
9. The LPN/LVN is reinforcing teaching for a client newly prescribed phenelzine (Nardil).
Which food should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?
A. Baked chicken
B. Cheddar cheese
, C. White bread
D. Apples
Answer: B
Rationale: Phenelzine is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI); consuming tyramine-rich
foods such as aged cheese can precipitate a hypertensive crisis. The other foods are low in
tyramine and safe.
10. The LPN/LVN is assisting with a staff education program on infection control. Which
statement by a staff member indicates an understanding of standard precautions?
A. “I will wear gloves when touching any client’s intact skin.”
B. “I will wear a mask for all client contacts.”
C. “I will use alcohol-based hand rub only when hands are visibly soiled.”
D. “I will wear gloves when touching blood, body fluids, or mucous membranes.”
Answer: D
Rationale: Standard precautions require gloves whenever there is potential contact with
blood or body fluids. Gloves are not required for intact skin contact. Masks are not necessary
for all contacts. Hand hygiene with soap and water is required when hands are visibly soiled;
alcohol rub is used otherwise.
11. The LPN/LVN is collecting data from a client with suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT).
Which finding most strongly supports this diagnosis?
A. Bilateral pedal edema
B. Diminished pedal pulses
C. Unilateral calf swelling, warmth, and tenderness
D. Intermittent claudication
Answer: C
Rationale: DVT typically presents with unilateral swelling, warmth, and tenderness in the
affected extremity. Bilateral edema suggests a systemic problem. Diminished pulses are more
indicative of arterial insufficiency. Intermittent claudication is associated with peripheral
artery disease.
12. The LPN/LVN is reinforcing instructions for a client who will undergo a colonoscopy. Which
statement indicates the client understands the preparation?
A. “I can eat a light breakfast the morning of the procedure.”
B. “I need to drink a bowel-cleansing solution until my stool is clear.”
