MDC3 EXAM NUR 2502 EXAM 2 | EXAM PRACTICE | STUDY GUIDE | TESTBANK |
PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS | EXAM PREPARATION | ADVANCED REVIEW |
COMPREHENSIVE PRACTICE EXAM | LATEST UPDATE 2026/2027
Examiner:
Rasmussen University (Course-Based Nursing Assessment)
TABLE OF CONTENTS
1. Cardiovascular Disorders
2. Respiratory Disorders
3. Endocrine Disorders
4. Renal and Urinary Disorders
5. Gastrointestinal Disorders
6. Neurological Disorders
7. Fluid and Electrolyte Management
8. Pharmacological Management
9. Clinical Prioritization and Delegation
10. Patient Safety, Evidence-Based Practice, and Nursing Judgment
DESCRIPTION
This comprehensive practice resource is designed to help nursing students prepare for
an advanced NUR 2502 Exam 2 by reinforcing concepts commonly covered in adult
medical-surgical nursing courses. The questions emphasize clinical judgment,
prioritization, patient assessment, pharmacology, pathophysiology, nursing
interventions, and evidence-based decision-making. Rather than reproducing any
actual examination, this study guide provides original scenario-based practice
questions inspired by topics frequently addressed in nursing curricula and standard
medical-surgical textbooks. Learners are challenged to analyze complex patient
situations, recognize complications early, interpret assessment findings, prioritize
interventions, and apply professional nursing standards. These advanced practice
questions are intended to strengthen critical thinking, improve examination readiness,
and enhance confidence in caring for adults with acute and chronic health conditions.
,QUESTION 1.
A client with acute decompensated heart failure develops increasing dyspnea,
bilateral crackles, and an oxygen saturation of 86% despite receiving oxygen via nasal
cannula. Which nursing action should be performed first?
A. Place the client in high-Fowler's position and reassess oxygenation.
B. Administer the scheduled ACE inhibitor.
C. Restrict oral fluid intake.
D. Encourage coughing and deep-breathing exercises.
🔴 Correct Answer: A. Place the client in high-Fowler's position and reassess
oxygenation.
🔵 Explanation: Positioning the client upright immediately decreases venous return
and improves lung expansion, making it the priority intervention for pulmonary
congestion. Administering medications may be necessary afterward, but correcting
impaired oxygenation takes precedence. Fluid restriction and pulmonary hygiene are
supportive interventions but are not the immediate priority.
QUESTION 2.
A nurse reviews arterial blood gas results: pH 7.29, PaCO₂ 52 mmHg, HCO₃⁻ 25
mEq/L. Which interpretation is most accurate?
A. Metabolic acidosis without compensation
B. Respiratory acidosis without metabolic compensation
C. Respiratory alkalosis with partial compensation
D. Fully compensated metabolic alkalosis
🔴 Correct Answer: B. Respiratory acidosis without metabolic compensation
🔵 Explanation: The low pH indicates acidosis while the elevated PaCO₂ identifies the
respiratory origin. Because bicarbonate remains within the normal range, metabolic
compensation has not yet occurred. The remaining options do not match the
laboratory findings.
,QUESTION 3.
A patient receiving intravenous insulin for diabetic ketoacidosis demonstrates a rapid
decline in serum glucose. Which laboratory value requires the nurse's closest
monitoring during continued therapy?
A. Magnesium
B. Calcium
C. Potassium
D. Sodium
🔴 Correct Answer: C. Potassium
🔵 Explanation: Insulin shifts potassium into cells, placing the patient at significant risk
for hypokalemia even when the initial potassium level is elevated. Frequent potassium
monitoring is essential to prevent life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias. The other
electrolytes should be monitored but are not affected as rapidly by insulin therapy.
QUESTION 4.
A hospitalized patient suddenly becomes confused, restless, and develops unilateral
weakness. Which action demonstrates the highest priority?
A. Document findings and continue observation.
B. Notify the provider during routine rounds.
C. Obtain routine vital signs in 30 minutes.
D. Activate the stroke response protocol immediately.
🔴 Correct Answer: D. Activate the stroke response protocol immediately.
🔵 Explanation: Acute neurological deficits require immediate activation of
institutional stroke protocols because timely intervention greatly influences
neurological outcomes. Delayed assessment or documentation alone may result in loss
of treatment opportunities. Early recognition is a critical nursing responsibility.
QUESTION 5.
, A client with chronic kidney disease has peaked T waves on telemetry. Which
laboratory abnormality is the nurse most likely to anticipate?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypocalcemia
C. Hyponatremia
D. Hypermagnesemia
🔴 Correct Answer: A. Hyperkalemia
🔵 Explanation: Peaked T waves are classic electrocardiographic findings associated
with elevated serum potassium levels. Chronic kidney disease reduces potassium
excretion, increasing the risk of dangerous dysrhythmias. The remaining electrolyte
abnormalities produce different manifestations.
QUESTION 6.
A nurse is caring for four patients. Which patient should be assessed first?
A. Stable COPD patient requesting pain medication.
B. Patient one day after appendectomy with mild nausea.
C. Patient with chest pain reporting new diaphoresis and hypotension.
D. Patient awaiting discharge instructions.
🔴 Correct Answer: C. Patient with chest pain reporting new diaphoresis and
hypotension.
🔵 Explanation: New hypotension accompanied by chest pain and diaphoresis suggests
acute cardiovascular instability requiring immediate assessment. The remaining
patients have stable or non-life-threatening conditions. Priority follows the ABCs and
recognition of potential shock.
QUESTION 7.
A patient receiving unfractionated heparin has an activated partial thromboplastin
time (aPTT) significantly above the therapeutic range. Which intervention is most
PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS | EXAM PREPARATION | ADVANCED REVIEW |
COMPREHENSIVE PRACTICE EXAM | LATEST UPDATE 2026/2027
Examiner:
Rasmussen University (Course-Based Nursing Assessment)
TABLE OF CONTENTS
1. Cardiovascular Disorders
2. Respiratory Disorders
3. Endocrine Disorders
4. Renal and Urinary Disorders
5. Gastrointestinal Disorders
6. Neurological Disorders
7. Fluid and Electrolyte Management
8. Pharmacological Management
9. Clinical Prioritization and Delegation
10. Patient Safety, Evidence-Based Practice, and Nursing Judgment
DESCRIPTION
This comprehensive practice resource is designed to help nursing students prepare for
an advanced NUR 2502 Exam 2 by reinforcing concepts commonly covered in adult
medical-surgical nursing courses. The questions emphasize clinical judgment,
prioritization, patient assessment, pharmacology, pathophysiology, nursing
interventions, and evidence-based decision-making. Rather than reproducing any
actual examination, this study guide provides original scenario-based practice
questions inspired by topics frequently addressed in nursing curricula and standard
medical-surgical textbooks. Learners are challenged to analyze complex patient
situations, recognize complications early, interpret assessment findings, prioritize
interventions, and apply professional nursing standards. These advanced practice
questions are intended to strengthen critical thinking, improve examination readiness,
and enhance confidence in caring for adults with acute and chronic health conditions.
,QUESTION 1.
A client with acute decompensated heart failure develops increasing dyspnea,
bilateral crackles, and an oxygen saturation of 86% despite receiving oxygen via nasal
cannula. Which nursing action should be performed first?
A. Place the client in high-Fowler's position and reassess oxygenation.
B. Administer the scheduled ACE inhibitor.
C. Restrict oral fluid intake.
D. Encourage coughing and deep-breathing exercises.
🔴 Correct Answer: A. Place the client in high-Fowler's position and reassess
oxygenation.
🔵 Explanation: Positioning the client upright immediately decreases venous return
and improves lung expansion, making it the priority intervention for pulmonary
congestion. Administering medications may be necessary afterward, but correcting
impaired oxygenation takes precedence. Fluid restriction and pulmonary hygiene are
supportive interventions but are not the immediate priority.
QUESTION 2.
A nurse reviews arterial blood gas results: pH 7.29, PaCO₂ 52 mmHg, HCO₃⁻ 25
mEq/L. Which interpretation is most accurate?
A. Metabolic acidosis without compensation
B. Respiratory acidosis without metabolic compensation
C. Respiratory alkalosis with partial compensation
D. Fully compensated metabolic alkalosis
🔴 Correct Answer: B. Respiratory acidosis without metabolic compensation
🔵 Explanation: The low pH indicates acidosis while the elevated PaCO₂ identifies the
respiratory origin. Because bicarbonate remains within the normal range, metabolic
compensation has not yet occurred. The remaining options do not match the
laboratory findings.
,QUESTION 3.
A patient receiving intravenous insulin for diabetic ketoacidosis demonstrates a rapid
decline in serum glucose. Which laboratory value requires the nurse's closest
monitoring during continued therapy?
A. Magnesium
B. Calcium
C. Potassium
D. Sodium
🔴 Correct Answer: C. Potassium
🔵 Explanation: Insulin shifts potassium into cells, placing the patient at significant risk
for hypokalemia even when the initial potassium level is elevated. Frequent potassium
monitoring is essential to prevent life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias. The other
electrolytes should be monitored but are not affected as rapidly by insulin therapy.
QUESTION 4.
A hospitalized patient suddenly becomes confused, restless, and develops unilateral
weakness. Which action demonstrates the highest priority?
A. Document findings and continue observation.
B. Notify the provider during routine rounds.
C. Obtain routine vital signs in 30 minutes.
D. Activate the stroke response protocol immediately.
🔴 Correct Answer: D. Activate the stroke response protocol immediately.
🔵 Explanation: Acute neurological deficits require immediate activation of
institutional stroke protocols because timely intervention greatly influences
neurological outcomes. Delayed assessment or documentation alone may result in loss
of treatment opportunities. Early recognition is a critical nursing responsibility.
QUESTION 5.
, A client with chronic kidney disease has peaked T waves on telemetry. Which
laboratory abnormality is the nurse most likely to anticipate?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypocalcemia
C. Hyponatremia
D. Hypermagnesemia
🔴 Correct Answer: A. Hyperkalemia
🔵 Explanation: Peaked T waves are classic electrocardiographic findings associated
with elevated serum potassium levels. Chronic kidney disease reduces potassium
excretion, increasing the risk of dangerous dysrhythmias. The remaining electrolyte
abnormalities produce different manifestations.
QUESTION 6.
A nurse is caring for four patients. Which patient should be assessed first?
A. Stable COPD patient requesting pain medication.
B. Patient one day after appendectomy with mild nausea.
C. Patient with chest pain reporting new diaphoresis and hypotension.
D. Patient awaiting discharge instructions.
🔴 Correct Answer: C. Patient with chest pain reporting new diaphoresis and
hypotension.
🔵 Explanation: New hypotension accompanied by chest pain and diaphoresis suggests
acute cardiovascular instability requiring immediate assessment. The remaining
patients have stable or non-life-threatening conditions. Priority follows the ABCs and
recognition of potential shock.
QUESTION 7.
A patient receiving unfractionated heparin has an activated partial thromboplastin
time (aPTT) significantly above the therapeutic range. Which intervention is most
