TNS Trauma Nurse Specialist Quizzes/Pretests Exam
Latest Update 2026/2027 | 200 Questions and Verified
Answers | Complete Q&A Guide | A+ Graded
SECTION 1: TRAUMA SYSTEMS & TRIAGE (Questions 1–25)
1. Which level I trauma center requirement mandates the presence of a 24hour inhouse trauma
surgeon?
A) Minimum of 1,200 annual admissions
B) Immediate availability of a trauma surgeon for all patients
C) A trauma surgeon must be inhouse at all times
D) A trauma surgeon must be available within 30 minutes
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Level I trauma centers require a trauma surgeon to be inhouse 24 hours a day, 7 days a week.
Level II centers require immediate availability, but the surgeon does not need to be physically in house at
all times.
2. A Level II trauma center must have a trauma surgeon:
A) Inhouse at all times
B) Immediately available upon patient arrival
C) Available within 30 minutes
D) Available by phone only
Correct Answer: B
,Rationale: Level II trauma centers require a trauma surgeon to be immediately available upon patient
arrival, but not necessarily inhouse at all times.
3. The primary survey in trauma care follows which mnemonic?
A) ABCDE
B) CABDE
C) CABcDE
D) ABCDE with the "C" for circulation first
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The primary survey follows the CABcDE mnemonic: Catastrophic hemorrhage, Airway,
Breathing, Circulation, Disability, and Exposure/Environment. This prioritizes the most life threatening
issues first.
4. The goal of the primary survey is to:
A) Identify all injuries
B) Identify and treat lifethreatening conditions immediately
C) Obtain a complete medical history
D) Perform a headtotoe assessment
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The primary survey focuses on identifying and immediately treating lifethreatening
conditions. The secondary survey is a more detailed headtotoe examination performed once the patient
is stabilized.
,5. A patient with a GCS score of 8 requires which immediate intervention?
A) CT scan of the head
B) Intubation and airway protection
C) Administration of mannitol
D) IV fluids
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A GCS of 8 or less indicates a need for airway protection and intubation to prevent aspiration
and ensure adequate oxygenation.
6. Which facial fracture is most commonly associated with cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) rhinorrhea?
A) Mandibular fracture
B) Maxillary fracture
C) Le Fort fracture
D) Basilar skull fracture
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Le Fort fractures, particularly Le Fort II and III, are associated with CSF rhinorrhea. Basilar skull
fractures can also cause CSF leakage, but Le Fort fractures are a classic association.
, 7. Which of the following is an early sign of tension pneumothorax?
A) Hypotension
B) Respiratory alkalosis
C) Distended neck veins and tracheal deviation
D) Bradycardia
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Tension pneumothorax causes mediastinal shift, leading to tracheal deviation away from the
affected side and distended neck veins. Hypotension and tachycardia are also signs, but tracheal
deviation is a key early indicator.
8. The immediate management of tension pneumothorax is:
A) Chest tube insertion
B) Needle decompression
C) Oxygen administration
D) Intubation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Needle decompression (thoracostomy) is the immediate lifesaving intervention for tension
pneumothorax. Chest tube insertion follows after decompression.
9. A trauma patient with a subdural hematoma and acetabular fracture should be managed with priority
given to:
Latest Update 2026/2027 | 200 Questions and Verified
Answers | Complete Q&A Guide | A+ Graded
SECTION 1: TRAUMA SYSTEMS & TRIAGE (Questions 1–25)
1. Which level I trauma center requirement mandates the presence of a 24hour inhouse trauma
surgeon?
A) Minimum of 1,200 annual admissions
B) Immediate availability of a trauma surgeon for all patients
C) A trauma surgeon must be inhouse at all times
D) A trauma surgeon must be available within 30 minutes
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Level I trauma centers require a trauma surgeon to be inhouse 24 hours a day, 7 days a week.
Level II centers require immediate availability, but the surgeon does not need to be physically in house at
all times.
2. A Level II trauma center must have a trauma surgeon:
A) Inhouse at all times
B) Immediately available upon patient arrival
C) Available within 30 minutes
D) Available by phone only
Correct Answer: B
,Rationale: Level II trauma centers require a trauma surgeon to be immediately available upon patient
arrival, but not necessarily inhouse at all times.
3. The primary survey in trauma care follows which mnemonic?
A) ABCDE
B) CABDE
C) CABcDE
D) ABCDE with the "C" for circulation first
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The primary survey follows the CABcDE mnemonic: Catastrophic hemorrhage, Airway,
Breathing, Circulation, Disability, and Exposure/Environment. This prioritizes the most life threatening
issues first.
4. The goal of the primary survey is to:
A) Identify all injuries
B) Identify and treat lifethreatening conditions immediately
C) Obtain a complete medical history
D) Perform a headtotoe assessment
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The primary survey focuses on identifying and immediately treating lifethreatening
conditions. The secondary survey is a more detailed headtotoe examination performed once the patient
is stabilized.
,5. A patient with a GCS score of 8 requires which immediate intervention?
A) CT scan of the head
B) Intubation and airway protection
C) Administration of mannitol
D) IV fluids
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A GCS of 8 or less indicates a need for airway protection and intubation to prevent aspiration
and ensure adequate oxygenation.
6. Which facial fracture is most commonly associated with cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) rhinorrhea?
A) Mandibular fracture
B) Maxillary fracture
C) Le Fort fracture
D) Basilar skull fracture
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Le Fort fractures, particularly Le Fort II and III, are associated with CSF rhinorrhea. Basilar skull
fractures can also cause CSF leakage, but Le Fort fractures are a classic association.
, 7. Which of the following is an early sign of tension pneumothorax?
A) Hypotension
B) Respiratory alkalosis
C) Distended neck veins and tracheal deviation
D) Bradycardia
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Tension pneumothorax causes mediastinal shift, leading to tracheal deviation away from the
affected side and distended neck veins. Hypotension and tachycardia are also signs, but tracheal
deviation is a key early indicator.
8. The immediate management of tension pneumothorax is:
A) Chest tube insertion
B) Needle decompression
C) Oxygen administration
D) Intubation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Needle decompression (thoracostomy) is the immediate lifesaving intervention for tension
pneumothorax. Chest tube insertion follows after decompression.
9. A trauma patient with a subdural hematoma and acetabular fracture should be managed with priority
given to:
