NRNP 6568 Week 10 Knowledge Check | Latest Update
2026/2027 | 200 Practice Questions and Verified Answers |
Fall Term Complete Q&A Guide | A+ Graded
1. The type of prevention that is often related to screening, such as cancer screening, is known as:
A) Primary Prevention
B) Secondary Prevention
C) Tertiary Prevention
D) Primordial Prevention
Answer: B) Secondary Prevention
Explanation: Secondary prevention focuses on early detection and screening to identify disease at an
early stage when treatment is more effective. Cancer screenings (mammograms, colonoscopies, Pap
smears) are classic examples of secondary prevention.
2. Members of vulnerable populations often have health conditions that are exacerbated by
unnecessarily inadequate healthcare.
A) True
B) False
Answer: A) True
Explanation: Vulnerable populations frequently experience health disparities and inadequate access to
healthcare, which can exacerbate existing health conditions and lead to poorer health outcomes.
,3. Preventive health for modifiable risk factors to reduce cognitive decline risk includes all of the
following EXCEPT:
A) Reduce risk of isolation
B) Fall prevention
C) Promote lifelong learning
D) Encourage sedentary lifestyle
Answer: D) Encourage sedentary lifestyle
Explanation: A sedentary lifestyle is a risk factor for cognitive decline, not a preventive meas ure.
Reducing isolation, preventing falls, and promoting lifelong learning are all protective factors.
4. Gender identity is a person's individual association with gender (whether they feel primarily male,
female, combination, or neither).
A) True
B) False
Answer: A) True
Explanation: Gender identity refers to a person's internal sense of their own gender, which may be male,
female, a combination, or neither. This is distinct from biological sex assigned at birth.
5. An overweight male teenager presents with complaints of fatigue and lethargy. His mother states that
he has been falling asleep in school. Upon examination, he is found to be hypertensive with an average
blood pressure of 164/92 mmHg. The nurse practitioner suspects secondary hypertension, which can be
caused by disorders of all of the following systems EXCEPT:
A) Renal
,B) Endocrine
C) Musculoskeletal
D) Respiratory
Answer: C) Musculoskeletal
Explanation: Secondary hypertension can be caused by renal disorders (e.g., renal artery stenosis),
endocrine disorders (e.g., hyperaldosteronism, pheochromocytoma), and respiratory disorders (e.g.,
sleep apnea). Musculoskeletal disorders are not typically causes of secondary hypertension.
6. The nurse practitioner is evaluating patients who are at high risk for complications due to urinary tract
infections (UTIs). Which of the following patients does NOT belong in this category?
A) A 38yearold diabetic patient with an A1C of 7.5%
B) A patient with rheumatoid arthritis being treated with methotrexate and lowdose steroids
C) A 21yearold patient with a history of irritable bowel syndrome
D) A pregnant patient
Answer: C) A 21yearold patient with a history of irritable bowel syndrome
Explanation: Patients at high risk for UTI complications include diabetics (immunocompromised),
immunocompromised patients (on methotrexate/steroids), and pregnant patients. IBS alone does not
increase the risk for complicated UTIs.
7. A nurse practitioner is giving dietary counseling to a 30yearold male alcoholic who has recently been
diagnosed with folic aciddeficiency anemia. Which of the following foods should the nurse practitioner
recommend?
A) Tomatoes, oranges, and bananas
, B) Cheese, yogurt, and milk
C) Lettuce, spinach, and broccoli
D) Red meat and poultry
Answer: C) Lettuce, spinach, and broccoli
Explanation: Folate (folic acid) is found in leafy green vegetables (spinach, lettuce), broccoli, asparagus,
and fortified cereals. Alcoholism can lead to folate deficiency due to poor dietary intake and impaired
absorption.
8. A 25yearold patient presents with white, cottage cheeselike lesions on the oral mucosa that are easily
removed with a swab, leaving a mildly erythematous base. The NP recognizes this as:
A) Oral gonorrhea
B) Oral chlamydia
C) Oral thrush (Candidiasis)
D) Leukoplakia
Answer: C) Oral thrush (Candidiasis)
Explanation: Oral thrush is a fungal infection caused by Candida albicans, presenting as white, curdlike
plaques that can be easily scraped off. This distinguishes it from leukoplakia (which cannot be scraped
off) and bacterial infections. Immunocompromised patients, those on antibiotics, or inhaled
corticosteroid users are at higher risk.
9. Which of the following correctly differentiates viral conjunctivitis from bacterial conjunctivitis?
A) Viral conjunctivitis typically presents with mucopurulent discharge and is bilateral
2026/2027 | 200 Practice Questions and Verified Answers |
Fall Term Complete Q&A Guide | A+ Graded
1. The type of prevention that is often related to screening, such as cancer screening, is known as:
A) Primary Prevention
B) Secondary Prevention
C) Tertiary Prevention
D) Primordial Prevention
Answer: B) Secondary Prevention
Explanation: Secondary prevention focuses on early detection and screening to identify disease at an
early stage when treatment is more effective. Cancer screenings (mammograms, colonoscopies, Pap
smears) are classic examples of secondary prevention.
2. Members of vulnerable populations often have health conditions that are exacerbated by
unnecessarily inadequate healthcare.
A) True
B) False
Answer: A) True
Explanation: Vulnerable populations frequently experience health disparities and inadequate access to
healthcare, which can exacerbate existing health conditions and lead to poorer health outcomes.
,3. Preventive health for modifiable risk factors to reduce cognitive decline risk includes all of the
following EXCEPT:
A) Reduce risk of isolation
B) Fall prevention
C) Promote lifelong learning
D) Encourage sedentary lifestyle
Answer: D) Encourage sedentary lifestyle
Explanation: A sedentary lifestyle is a risk factor for cognitive decline, not a preventive meas ure.
Reducing isolation, preventing falls, and promoting lifelong learning are all protective factors.
4. Gender identity is a person's individual association with gender (whether they feel primarily male,
female, combination, or neither).
A) True
B) False
Answer: A) True
Explanation: Gender identity refers to a person's internal sense of their own gender, which may be male,
female, a combination, or neither. This is distinct from biological sex assigned at birth.
5. An overweight male teenager presents with complaints of fatigue and lethargy. His mother states that
he has been falling asleep in school. Upon examination, he is found to be hypertensive with an average
blood pressure of 164/92 mmHg. The nurse practitioner suspects secondary hypertension, which can be
caused by disorders of all of the following systems EXCEPT:
A) Renal
,B) Endocrine
C) Musculoskeletal
D) Respiratory
Answer: C) Musculoskeletal
Explanation: Secondary hypertension can be caused by renal disorders (e.g., renal artery stenosis),
endocrine disorders (e.g., hyperaldosteronism, pheochromocytoma), and respiratory disorders (e.g.,
sleep apnea). Musculoskeletal disorders are not typically causes of secondary hypertension.
6. The nurse practitioner is evaluating patients who are at high risk for complications due to urinary tract
infections (UTIs). Which of the following patients does NOT belong in this category?
A) A 38yearold diabetic patient with an A1C of 7.5%
B) A patient with rheumatoid arthritis being treated with methotrexate and lowdose steroids
C) A 21yearold patient with a history of irritable bowel syndrome
D) A pregnant patient
Answer: C) A 21yearold patient with a history of irritable bowel syndrome
Explanation: Patients at high risk for UTI complications include diabetics (immunocompromised),
immunocompromised patients (on methotrexate/steroids), and pregnant patients. IBS alone does not
increase the risk for complicated UTIs.
7. A nurse practitioner is giving dietary counseling to a 30yearold male alcoholic who has recently been
diagnosed with folic aciddeficiency anemia. Which of the following foods should the nurse practitioner
recommend?
A) Tomatoes, oranges, and bananas
, B) Cheese, yogurt, and milk
C) Lettuce, spinach, and broccoli
D) Red meat and poultry
Answer: C) Lettuce, spinach, and broccoli
Explanation: Folate (folic acid) is found in leafy green vegetables (spinach, lettuce), broccoli, asparagus,
and fortified cereals. Alcoholism can lead to folate deficiency due to poor dietary intake and impaired
absorption.
8. A 25yearold patient presents with white, cottage cheeselike lesions on the oral mucosa that are easily
removed with a swab, leaving a mildly erythematous base. The NP recognizes this as:
A) Oral gonorrhea
B) Oral chlamydia
C) Oral thrush (Candidiasis)
D) Leukoplakia
Answer: C) Oral thrush (Candidiasis)
Explanation: Oral thrush is a fungal infection caused by Candida albicans, presenting as white, curdlike
plaques that can be easily scraped off. This distinguishes it from leukoplakia (which cannot be scraped
off) and bacterial infections. Immunocompromised patients, those on antibiotics, or inhaled
corticosteroid users are at higher risk.
9. Which of the following correctly differentiates viral conjunctivitis from bacterial conjunctivitis?
A) Viral conjunctivitis typically presents with mucopurulent discharge and is bilateral
