NRG 200 Pharmacology for Human Caring
Nursing Final Exam | Verified Questions and
Correct Answers plus Rationale | New Update
2026/27 | Already Graded A+
A nurse is caring for a patient with type 2 diabetes who has been prescribed a
steroid for an acute inflammatory condition. Which adjustment in the patient's
diabetes medication regimen should the nurse anticipate?
A. Decrease the dose of insulin or oral hypoglycemics to prevent hypoglycemia.
B. Increase the dose of insulin or oral hypoglycemics to counteract steroid-induced
hyperglycemia.
C. Discontinue all diabetes medications until the steroid course is complete.
D. No adjustment is needed as steroids do not affect blood glucose levels.
Correct Answer:B. Increase the dose of insulin or oral hypoglycemics to
counteract steroid-induced hyperglycemia.
Rationale: Steroids (e.g., prednisone, methylprednisolone) are known to cause
significant hyperglycemia by promoting gluconeogenesis and insulin resistance.
Patients with diabetes will likely require an increased dose of their anti-diabetic
medications to manage this effect.
A nurse is providing education to a patient newly diagnosed with HIV who has
been prescribed antiretroviral therapy (ART). Which of the following statements
by the patient indicates the need for further teaching?
A. "I need to take my medication exactly as prescribed every day."
B. "I can stop taking my medication once my viral load becomes undetectable."
C. "I should not share my medication with anyone else."
D. "I will need to have regular blood tests to monitor my CD4 count and viral
load."
,Correct Answer:B. "I can stop taking my medication once my viral load becomes
undetectable."
Rationale: ART is a lifelong therapy. An undetectable viral load is a sign that the
treatment is working effectively, but it does not mean the virus is cured. If the
patient stops taking the medication, the viral load will likely rebound, increasing
the risk of disease progression and transmission.
A patient with HIV/AIDS who is prescribed abacavir (Ziagen) presents to the
clinic with a new onset of a skin rash, fever, and malaise. The healthcare
provider suspects Stevens-Johnson Syndrome (SJS). Which of the following
actions should the nurse take first?
A. Administer an antihistamine to treat the rash.
B. Hold the abacavir and notify the healthcare provider.
C. Reassure the patient that this is a common, mild side effect.
D. Apply a topical corticosteroid cream to the rash.
Correct Answer:B. Hold the abacavir and notify the healthcare provider.
Rationale: SJS is a severe, life-threatening hypersensitivity reaction. The first and
most critical action is to stop the offending medication (abacavir) and immediately
notify the healthcare provider for further management.
A nurse is caring for a patient who has recently been diagnosed with HIV. The
patient expresses concerns about the possibility of transmitting the virus to
others. Which of the following statements is the most appropriate response by
the nurse?
A. "As long as you don't have any symptoms, you cannot transmit the virus."
B. "You can reduce the risk of transmission by taking your medication as
prescribed and using protection during sexual activity."
C. "The risk of transmission is only present if you engage in anal sex."
D. "As long as you use a condom, you don't need to take the medication."
Correct Answer:B. "You can reduce the risk of transmission by taking your
medication as prescribed and using protection during sexual activity."
,Rationale: This is the most accurate and comprehensive response. Adhering to
ART to achieve an undetectable viral load (U=U) combined with safer sex practices
like using condoms are the most effective strategies to prevent HIV transmission.
A 65-year-old patient with a history of chickenpox presents with a painful rash
along one side of their torso. The rash appears as fluid-filled blisters that follow
the path of a single nerve. The patient is diagnosed with shingles. Which of the
following is the most appropriate initial treatment for this condition?
A. Antibiotic therapy to prevent secondary bacterial infection.
B. Antiviral therapy to reduce the severity and duration of symptoms.
C. Topical corticosteroids to reduce inflammation.
D. Opioid analgesics to manage pain.
Correct Answer:B. Antiviral therapy to reduce the severity and duration of
symptoms.
Rationale: Shingles (herpes zoster) is caused by the reactivation of the varicella-
zoster virus. Prompt initiation of antiviral medications (e.g., acyclovir, valacyclovir)
is the first-line treatment to reduce the severity and duration of the acute
outbreak and may help prevent postherpetic neuralgia.
A 34-year-old patient with a history of recurrent herpes simplex virus (HSV) type
2 presents to the clinic with painful lesions on the genital area. The patient asks
the nurse how the condition is typically treated. Which of the following
medications is most commonly prescribed to manage recurrent HSV outbreaks?
A. Acyclovir
B. Metronidazole
C. Fluconazole
D. Azithromycin
Correct Answer:A. Acyclovir
Rationale: Acyclovir is an antiviral medication that is the first-line treatment for
herpes simplex virus (HSV) infections. It works by inhibiting viral DNA replication
and is used to manage both initial and recurrent outbreaks.
, A nurse is caring for a patient who has been prescribed acyclovir (Zovirax) for
the treatment of herpes zoster. The nurse should prioritize which of the
following instructions when educating the patient about the medication?
A. "Take the medication on an empty stomach."
B. "Increase your fluid intake while taking this medication to prevent kidney
damage."
C. "Avoid sunlight while taking this medication."
D. "Take this medication with grapefruit juice to enhance absorption."
Correct Answer:B. "Increase your fluid intake while taking this medication to
prevent kidney damage."
Rationale: Acyclovir is primarily excreted renally. High doses or poor hydration
can lead to crystallization in the kidneys, causing nephrotoxicity. The patient
should be instructed to maintain adequate hydration (e.g., 2-3 liters of fluid per
day).
A patient is prescribed tuberculosis (TB) treatment with a combination of
medications. The nurse educates the patient about potential side effects,
including changes in the color of their bodily secretions. Which of the following
medications is known to cause a change in the color of secretions?
A. Isoniazid
B. Ethambutol
C. Pyrazinamide
D. Rifampin
Correct Answer:D. Rifampin
Rationale: Rifampin is known to cause harmless but startling discoloration of
bodily fluids, turning them a red-orange color. This includes urine, sweat, tears,
and saliva. Patients must be warned about this to prevent unnecessary alarm.
Nursing Final Exam | Verified Questions and
Correct Answers plus Rationale | New Update
2026/27 | Already Graded A+
A nurse is caring for a patient with type 2 diabetes who has been prescribed a
steroid for an acute inflammatory condition. Which adjustment in the patient's
diabetes medication regimen should the nurse anticipate?
A. Decrease the dose of insulin or oral hypoglycemics to prevent hypoglycemia.
B. Increase the dose of insulin or oral hypoglycemics to counteract steroid-induced
hyperglycemia.
C. Discontinue all diabetes medications until the steroid course is complete.
D. No adjustment is needed as steroids do not affect blood glucose levels.
Correct Answer:B. Increase the dose of insulin or oral hypoglycemics to
counteract steroid-induced hyperglycemia.
Rationale: Steroids (e.g., prednisone, methylprednisolone) are known to cause
significant hyperglycemia by promoting gluconeogenesis and insulin resistance.
Patients with diabetes will likely require an increased dose of their anti-diabetic
medications to manage this effect.
A nurse is providing education to a patient newly diagnosed with HIV who has
been prescribed antiretroviral therapy (ART). Which of the following statements
by the patient indicates the need for further teaching?
A. "I need to take my medication exactly as prescribed every day."
B. "I can stop taking my medication once my viral load becomes undetectable."
C. "I should not share my medication with anyone else."
D. "I will need to have regular blood tests to monitor my CD4 count and viral
load."
,Correct Answer:B. "I can stop taking my medication once my viral load becomes
undetectable."
Rationale: ART is a lifelong therapy. An undetectable viral load is a sign that the
treatment is working effectively, but it does not mean the virus is cured. If the
patient stops taking the medication, the viral load will likely rebound, increasing
the risk of disease progression and transmission.
A patient with HIV/AIDS who is prescribed abacavir (Ziagen) presents to the
clinic with a new onset of a skin rash, fever, and malaise. The healthcare
provider suspects Stevens-Johnson Syndrome (SJS). Which of the following
actions should the nurse take first?
A. Administer an antihistamine to treat the rash.
B. Hold the abacavir and notify the healthcare provider.
C. Reassure the patient that this is a common, mild side effect.
D. Apply a topical corticosteroid cream to the rash.
Correct Answer:B. Hold the abacavir and notify the healthcare provider.
Rationale: SJS is a severe, life-threatening hypersensitivity reaction. The first and
most critical action is to stop the offending medication (abacavir) and immediately
notify the healthcare provider for further management.
A nurse is caring for a patient who has recently been diagnosed with HIV. The
patient expresses concerns about the possibility of transmitting the virus to
others. Which of the following statements is the most appropriate response by
the nurse?
A. "As long as you don't have any symptoms, you cannot transmit the virus."
B. "You can reduce the risk of transmission by taking your medication as
prescribed and using protection during sexual activity."
C. "The risk of transmission is only present if you engage in anal sex."
D. "As long as you use a condom, you don't need to take the medication."
Correct Answer:B. "You can reduce the risk of transmission by taking your
medication as prescribed and using protection during sexual activity."
,Rationale: This is the most accurate and comprehensive response. Adhering to
ART to achieve an undetectable viral load (U=U) combined with safer sex practices
like using condoms are the most effective strategies to prevent HIV transmission.
A 65-year-old patient with a history of chickenpox presents with a painful rash
along one side of their torso. The rash appears as fluid-filled blisters that follow
the path of a single nerve. The patient is diagnosed with shingles. Which of the
following is the most appropriate initial treatment for this condition?
A. Antibiotic therapy to prevent secondary bacterial infection.
B. Antiviral therapy to reduce the severity and duration of symptoms.
C. Topical corticosteroids to reduce inflammation.
D. Opioid analgesics to manage pain.
Correct Answer:B. Antiviral therapy to reduce the severity and duration of
symptoms.
Rationale: Shingles (herpes zoster) is caused by the reactivation of the varicella-
zoster virus. Prompt initiation of antiviral medications (e.g., acyclovir, valacyclovir)
is the first-line treatment to reduce the severity and duration of the acute
outbreak and may help prevent postherpetic neuralgia.
A 34-year-old patient with a history of recurrent herpes simplex virus (HSV) type
2 presents to the clinic with painful lesions on the genital area. The patient asks
the nurse how the condition is typically treated. Which of the following
medications is most commonly prescribed to manage recurrent HSV outbreaks?
A. Acyclovir
B. Metronidazole
C. Fluconazole
D. Azithromycin
Correct Answer:A. Acyclovir
Rationale: Acyclovir is an antiviral medication that is the first-line treatment for
herpes simplex virus (HSV) infections. It works by inhibiting viral DNA replication
and is used to manage both initial and recurrent outbreaks.
, A nurse is caring for a patient who has been prescribed acyclovir (Zovirax) for
the treatment of herpes zoster. The nurse should prioritize which of the
following instructions when educating the patient about the medication?
A. "Take the medication on an empty stomach."
B. "Increase your fluid intake while taking this medication to prevent kidney
damage."
C. "Avoid sunlight while taking this medication."
D. "Take this medication with grapefruit juice to enhance absorption."
Correct Answer:B. "Increase your fluid intake while taking this medication to
prevent kidney damage."
Rationale: Acyclovir is primarily excreted renally. High doses or poor hydration
can lead to crystallization in the kidneys, causing nephrotoxicity. The patient
should be instructed to maintain adequate hydration (e.g., 2-3 liters of fluid per
day).
A patient is prescribed tuberculosis (TB) treatment with a combination of
medications. The nurse educates the patient about potential side effects,
including changes in the color of their bodily secretions. Which of the following
medications is known to cause a change in the color of secretions?
A. Isoniazid
B. Ethambutol
C. Pyrazinamide
D. Rifampin
Correct Answer:D. Rifampin
Rationale: Rifampin is known to cause harmless but startling discoloration of
bodily fluids, turning them a red-orange color. This includes urine, sweat, tears,
and saliva. Patients must be warned about this to prevent unnecessary alarm.
