Advanced Psychopharmacology
Midterm Exam Study Guide 2026 UPDATE
,Question 1
A 34-year-old male with a history of schizophrenia presents to the clinic with
severe auditory hallucinations. He has previously failed adequate trials of
olanzapine and risperidone due to lack of efficacy. The PMHNP considers
initiating clozapine. Which of the following baseline laboratory values must be
verified before prescribing this medication?
A) Serum creatinine and blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
B) Absolute Neutrophil Count (ANC)
C) Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) and aspartate aminotransferase (AST)
D) Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH)
VERIFIED ANSWER: B) Absolute Neutrophil Count (ANC)
EXPLANATION: Clozapine carries a black box warning for severe
neutropenia and agranulocytosis. A baseline Absolute Neutrophil Count
(ANC) must be \(\ge 1500/\mu L\) in the general population (\(\ge 1000/\mu
L\) for individuals with documented Benign Ethnic Neutropenia, or BEN)
before treatment initiation. Ongoing monitoring via the Clozapine REMS
registry is mandatory to detect life-threatening bone marrow suppression
early.
Question 2
A patient currently taking phenelzine, a Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitor (MAOI),
for treatment-resistant depression is accidentally prescribed sertraline by an
urgent care provider. What major clinical risk is associated with the concurrent
administration of these two classes of medications?
,A) Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS)
B) Metabolic Syndrome
C) Serotonin Syndrome
D) Tardive Dyskinesia
VERIFIED ANSWER: C) Serotonin Syndrome
EXPLANATION: Combining an MAOI with a Selective Serotonin Reuptake
Inhibitor (SSRI) like sertraline exponentially increases synaptic serotonin
concentrations. This combination can cause Serotonin Syndrome,
characterized by autonomic instability, altered mental status, neuromuscular
hyperactivity (clonus, hyperreflexia), and hyperthermia. A minimum washout
period of 14 days is required when switching between these agents.
Question 3
The PMHNP is reviewing the mechanism of action of a newly prescribed
medication for a patient diagnosed with ADHD. The medication works
primarily by inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine and dopamine, but it does
not promote the massive release of stored monoamines from synaptic vesicles.
Which medication fits this profile?
A) Lisdexamfetamine
B) Methylphenidate
C) Atomoxetine
D) Guanfacine
VERIFIED ANSWER: B) Methylphenidate
EXPLANATION: Methylphenidate functions primarily as a dopamine and
norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (DNRI) by blocking the DAT and NET
, transporters. It lacks the properties of amphetamines (like lisdexamfetamine),
which not only block reuptake but also reverse transporter flow and displace
monoamines from vesicular storage into the cytoplasm via VMAT2.
Atomoxetine is purely a selective norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor, and
guanfacine is an alpha-2A adrenergic receptor agonist.
Question 4
A 28-year-old female patient with bipolar I disorder wishes to start a family.
She is currently stable on lithium carbonate. When counseling her regarding the
risks of lithium use during the first trimester of pregnancy, which specific
congenital cardiac defect should the PMHNP discuss?
A) Tetralogy of Fallot
B) Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD)
C) Ebstein's Anomaly
D) Coarctation of the Aorta
VERIFIED ANSWER: C) Ebstein's Anomaly
EXPLANATION: Lithium exposure during the first trimester of pregnancy is
classically associated with an increased risk of Ebstein’s anomaly, a rare
congenital cardiac malformation characterized by the downward
displacement of the tricuspid valve leaflets into the right ventricle. While the
absolute risk is lower than historically reported, it remains significantly
higher than the baseline population rate, requiring fetal echocardiography
and careful risk-benefit analysis.