CPJE-PNN EXAM– QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS | VERIFIED AND
WELL DETAILED ANSWERS PLUS RATIONALES | GUARANTEED
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1. A pharmacist receives a prescription for a controlled substance in Schedule II via
facsimile transmission for a patient residing in a licensed skilled nursing facility. What is
the legal status of this transmission under federal and California pharmacy law?
A. It is prohibited under all circumstances because Schedule II prescriptions cannot be faxed.
B. It serves as the original prescription, provided the pharmacy has a hard copy on file prior to
dispensing.
C. It serves as the original prescription for patients in a licensed skilled nursing facility.
D. It is only valid if followed by a hard copy within 7 days.
ANSWER: C. It serves as the original prescription for patients in a licensed skilled nursing
facility.
Under both federal regulations and California pharmacy law, a facsimile transmission of a
Schedule II prescription for a patient in a licensed skilled nursing facility (SNF), a home
infusion agency, or a hospice program serves as the original written prescription. Option A is
incorrect because exceptions exist for specific facility types. Option B and D describe
requirements for emergency or outpatient settings rather than the statutory SNF facsimile
exemption.
2. A patient presents to a community pharmacy requesting emergency contraception
without a prescription. The pharmacist assesses the patient and determines dispensing is
appropriate. Which of the following is required by California law regarding this
interaction?
A. The pharmacist must report the dispensing to the California Department of Public Health
within 24 hours.
B. The pharmacist must provide the patient with the standard fact sheet approved by the Board
of Pharmacy and counsel on usage.
C. The patient must be at least 18 years of age to receive emergency contraception from a
pharmacist.
D. The pharmacist must document the encounter in the Controlled Substance Utilization Review
and Evaluation System (CURES).
ANSWER: B. The pharmacist must provide the patient with the standard fact sheet
approved by the Board of Pharmacy and counsel on usage.
California law permits pharmacists to furnish emergency contraception pursuant to
standardized protocols, requiring the provision of a Board-approved fact sheet and mandatory
,counseling. Option A is incorrect because no mandatory reporting to the public health
department is required for routine dispensing. Option C is incorrect as there is no age
restriction for obtaining emergency contraception. Option D is incorrect because emergency
contraception is not a controlled substance tracked in CURES.
3. During a routine inventory audit, a pharmacist-in-charge discovers a significant loss of
Schedule II controlled substances. Within what timeframe must the pharmacist-in-charge
notify the federal Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) and the California State Board
of Pharmacy?
A. Immediately upon discovery, followed by a written report within 7 business days.
B. Within 24 hours to the DEA and within 14 days to the Board of Pharmacy.
C. In writing within 30 days to the DEA and immediately to the Board of Pharmacy.
D. Directly to the DEA in writing upon discovery and to the Board of Pharmacy within 30 days
of discovery.
ANSWER: D. Directly to the DEA in writing upon discovery and to the Board of Pharmacy
within 30 days of discovery.
Federal DEA regulations require registrants to notify the DEA field division in writing of any
theft or significant loss of controlled substances upon discovery (typically utilizing DEA Form
106). California law mandates that the Board of Pharmacy be notified in writing within 30
days of discovering any loss or theft of controlled substances. Options A, B, and C misstate the
specific statutory reporting windows and agency protocols.
4. A patient drops off a new prescription for a maintenance medication and asks to wait.
The pharmacist reviews the patient profile and notes a severe, documented allergy to the
prescribed drug class. What is the most appropriate initial professional action for the
pharmacist to take?
A. Dispense the medication as written since the prescriber holds ultimate liability.
B. Contact the prescriber immediately to discuss the allergy and recommend an alternative
therapy.
C. Alter the prescription to a safe alternative within the same drug class without contacting the
prescriber.
D. Refuse to fill the prescription and ask the patient to return to the physician's office for a
refund.
ANSWER: B. Contact the prescriber immediately to discuss the allergy and recommend an
alternative therapy.
Pharmacists have a professional and legal duty of care to screen for drug-allergy interactions
and intervene when patient safety is compromised. Contacting the prescriber allows for
collaborative resolution and selection of a safe alternative. Option A violates the standard of
care by ignoring a documented contraindication. Option C is illegal as pharmacists cannot
,unilaterally alter medication selection without prescriber authorization. Option D fails to
uphold patient-centered care and professional communication standards.
5. A collaborative practice agreement (CPA) is established between a pharmacist and a
physician. Which of the following activities is a pharmacist legally permitted to perform
under a CPA in California?
A. Initiate, adjust, or discontinue drug therapy independently without any physician oversight or
protocol.
B. Diagnose new medical conditions to establish baseline therapy needs.
C. Order and interpret laboratory tests directly related to the patient's drug therapy regimen as
outlined in the agreement.
D. Prescribe Schedule II controlled substances for acute pain management.
ANSWER: C. Order and interpret laboratory tests directly related to the patient's drug
therapy regimen as outlined in the agreement.
California pharmacists operating under a collaborative practice agreement or protocol are
explicitly authorized to order and interpret laboratory tests related to drug therapy
management. Option A is incorrect because protocols require adherence to established
parameters rather than absolute independence without guidance. Option B is incorrect
because diagnosis of new medical conditions remains outside the scope of pharmacist practice.
Option D is incorrect because pharmacists generally cannot initiate Schedule II controlled
substances independently under standard routine clinical protocols without direct physician
direction for specific patients.
6. A pharmacy technician is preparing compounded sterile preparations in a cleanroom
environment. Which of the following actions represents a direct violation of standard
compounding safety regulations?
A. Performing hand hygiene up to the elbows prior to entering the cleanroom suite.
B. Wearing artificial fingernails while compounding non-hazardous sterile preparations.
C. Donned personal protective equipment in the correct sequential order starting with shoe
covers.
D. Verifying laminar airflow workbench pre-filters are inspected and maintained according to
schedule.
ANSWER: B. Wearing artificial fingernails while compounding non-hazardous sterile
preparations.
USP compounding standards strictly prohibit personnel involved in sterile compounding from
wearing artificial nails, extenders, or nail polish due to the high risk of microbial colonization
and shedding. Option A represents correct hygiene practices. Option C follows proper garbing
sequence. Option D reflects proper facility maintenance and quality control.
, 7. A patient presents a prescription for a multi-ingredient compounded topical cream. The
active pharmaceutical ingredients are commercially available as single-entity
manufactured products. Under what condition may a pharmacist legally compound this
preparation?
A. Compounding commercially available products is strictly prohibited under all circumstances.
B. The prescriber specifies a unique combination or dosage form that is not commercially
available and meets a specific clinical need for the patient.
C. The compounded product is priced lower than the equivalent commercial products.
D. The pharmacy obtains prior written authorization from the state medical board.
ANSWER: B. The prescriber specifies a unique combination or dosage form that is not
commercially available and meets a specific clinical need for the patient.
Pharmacies may compound preparations containing commercially available components if the
finished product is altered to meet a specific medical need of an individual patient as ordered
by a prescriber (e.g., unique strength or combination). Option A is incorrect because
compounding is permissible with a clinical justification. Option C and D are irrelevant
regulatory myths.
8. A retail pharmacy is closing permanently. According to California pharmacy law, what
must the pharmacist-in-charge do with the pharmacy's acquisition and disposition records
for controlled substances?
A. Shred all records immediately upon the final day of business to protect patient privacy.
B. Transfer the records to the California State Board of Pharmacy for permanent state archiving.
C. Maintain the records in a readily retrievable location for a minimum of three years from the
date of closure.
D. Hand-deliver the records to the local police department within 48 hours of closure.
ANSWER: C. Maintain the records in a readily retrievable location for a minimum of three
years from the date of closure.
Federal and state laws require that controlled substance records be retained and kept readily
retrievable for inspection for a minimum of three years (California requirement; federal is two
years, but state law governs the stricter standard) following pharmacy closure or transfer of
ownership. Options A, B, and D describe improper disposal or handling procedures.
9. A pharmacist receives a verbal telephone order for a Schedule III controlled substance
from a registered practitioner. What specific recording and processing steps must the
pharmacist complete immediately?
A. Reduce the order to writing, including all mandatory prescription data elements, and verify
the prescriber's identity before dispensing.
B. Dispense the medication immediately and request a signed written prescription within 72
hours.
WELL DETAILED ANSWERS PLUS RATIONALES | GUARANTEED
PASS | LATEST EXAM UPDATE | EXAM PREP | STUDY GUIDE |
PRACTICE TEST| DOWNLOAD INSTANT PDF
1. A pharmacist receives a prescription for a controlled substance in Schedule II via
facsimile transmission for a patient residing in a licensed skilled nursing facility. What is
the legal status of this transmission under federal and California pharmacy law?
A. It is prohibited under all circumstances because Schedule II prescriptions cannot be faxed.
B. It serves as the original prescription, provided the pharmacy has a hard copy on file prior to
dispensing.
C. It serves as the original prescription for patients in a licensed skilled nursing facility.
D. It is only valid if followed by a hard copy within 7 days.
ANSWER: C. It serves as the original prescription for patients in a licensed skilled nursing
facility.
Under both federal regulations and California pharmacy law, a facsimile transmission of a
Schedule II prescription for a patient in a licensed skilled nursing facility (SNF), a home
infusion agency, or a hospice program serves as the original written prescription. Option A is
incorrect because exceptions exist for specific facility types. Option B and D describe
requirements for emergency or outpatient settings rather than the statutory SNF facsimile
exemption.
2. A patient presents to a community pharmacy requesting emergency contraception
without a prescription. The pharmacist assesses the patient and determines dispensing is
appropriate. Which of the following is required by California law regarding this
interaction?
A. The pharmacist must report the dispensing to the California Department of Public Health
within 24 hours.
B. The pharmacist must provide the patient with the standard fact sheet approved by the Board
of Pharmacy and counsel on usage.
C. The patient must be at least 18 years of age to receive emergency contraception from a
pharmacist.
D. The pharmacist must document the encounter in the Controlled Substance Utilization Review
and Evaluation System (CURES).
ANSWER: B. The pharmacist must provide the patient with the standard fact sheet
approved by the Board of Pharmacy and counsel on usage.
California law permits pharmacists to furnish emergency contraception pursuant to
standardized protocols, requiring the provision of a Board-approved fact sheet and mandatory
,counseling. Option A is incorrect because no mandatory reporting to the public health
department is required for routine dispensing. Option C is incorrect as there is no age
restriction for obtaining emergency contraception. Option D is incorrect because emergency
contraception is not a controlled substance tracked in CURES.
3. During a routine inventory audit, a pharmacist-in-charge discovers a significant loss of
Schedule II controlled substances. Within what timeframe must the pharmacist-in-charge
notify the federal Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) and the California State Board
of Pharmacy?
A. Immediately upon discovery, followed by a written report within 7 business days.
B. Within 24 hours to the DEA and within 14 days to the Board of Pharmacy.
C. In writing within 30 days to the DEA and immediately to the Board of Pharmacy.
D. Directly to the DEA in writing upon discovery and to the Board of Pharmacy within 30 days
of discovery.
ANSWER: D. Directly to the DEA in writing upon discovery and to the Board of Pharmacy
within 30 days of discovery.
Federal DEA regulations require registrants to notify the DEA field division in writing of any
theft or significant loss of controlled substances upon discovery (typically utilizing DEA Form
106). California law mandates that the Board of Pharmacy be notified in writing within 30
days of discovering any loss or theft of controlled substances. Options A, B, and C misstate the
specific statutory reporting windows and agency protocols.
4. A patient drops off a new prescription for a maintenance medication and asks to wait.
The pharmacist reviews the patient profile and notes a severe, documented allergy to the
prescribed drug class. What is the most appropriate initial professional action for the
pharmacist to take?
A. Dispense the medication as written since the prescriber holds ultimate liability.
B. Contact the prescriber immediately to discuss the allergy and recommend an alternative
therapy.
C. Alter the prescription to a safe alternative within the same drug class without contacting the
prescriber.
D. Refuse to fill the prescription and ask the patient to return to the physician's office for a
refund.
ANSWER: B. Contact the prescriber immediately to discuss the allergy and recommend an
alternative therapy.
Pharmacists have a professional and legal duty of care to screen for drug-allergy interactions
and intervene when patient safety is compromised. Contacting the prescriber allows for
collaborative resolution and selection of a safe alternative. Option A violates the standard of
care by ignoring a documented contraindication. Option C is illegal as pharmacists cannot
,unilaterally alter medication selection without prescriber authorization. Option D fails to
uphold patient-centered care and professional communication standards.
5. A collaborative practice agreement (CPA) is established between a pharmacist and a
physician. Which of the following activities is a pharmacist legally permitted to perform
under a CPA in California?
A. Initiate, adjust, or discontinue drug therapy independently without any physician oversight or
protocol.
B. Diagnose new medical conditions to establish baseline therapy needs.
C. Order and interpret laboratory tests directly related to the patient's drug therapy regimen as
outlined in the agreement.
D. Prescribe Schedule II controlled substances for acute pain management.
ANSWER: C. Order and interpret laboratory tests directly related to the patient's drug
therapy regimen as outlined in the agreement.
California pharmacists operating under a collaborative practice agreement or protocol are
explicitly authorized to order and interpret laboratory tests related to drug therapy
management. Option A is incorrect because protocols require adherence to established
parameters rather than absolute independence without guidance. Option B is incorrect
because diagnosis of new medical conditions remains outside the scope of pharmacist practice.
Option D is incorrect because pharmacists generally cannot initiate Schedule II controlled
substances independently under standard routine clinical protocols without direct physician
direction for specific patients.
6. A pharmacy technician is preparing compounded sterile preparations in a cleanroom
environment. Which of the following actions represents a direct violation of standard
compounding safety regulations?
A. Performing hand hygiene up to the elbows prior to entering the cleanroom suite.
B. Wearing artificial fingernails while compounding non-hazardous sterile preparations.
C. Donned personal protective equipment in the correct sequential order starting with shoe
covers.
D. Verifying laminar airflow workbench pre-filters are inspected and maintained according to
schedule.
ANSWER: B. Wearing artificial fingernails while compounding non-hazardous sterile
preparations.
USP compounding standards strictly prohibit personnel involved in sterile compounding from
wearing artificial nails, extenders, or nail polish due to the high risk of microbial colonization
and shedding. Option A represents correct hygiene practices. Option C follows proper garbing
sequence. Option D reflects proper facility maintenance and quality control.
, 7. A patient presents a prescription for a multi-ingredient compounded topical cream. The
active pharmaceutical ingredients are commercially available as single-entity
manufactured products. Under what condition may a pharmacist legally compound this
preparation?
A. Compounding commercially available products is strictly prohibited under all circumstances.
B. The prescriber specifies a unique combination or dosage form that is not commercially
available and meets a specific clinical need for the patient.
C. The compounded product is priced lower than the equivalent commercial products.
D. The pharmacy obtains prior written authorization from the state medical board.
ANSWER: B. The prescriber specifies a unique combination or dosage form that is not
commercially available and meets a specific clinical need for the patient.
Pharmacies may compound preparations containing commercially available components if the
finished product is altered to meet a specific medical need of an individual patient as ordered
by a prescriber (e.g., unique strength or combination). Option A is incorrect because
compounding is permissible with a clinical justification. Option C and D are irrelevant
regulatory myths.
8. A retail pharmacy is closing permanently. According to California pharmacy law, what
must the pharmacist-in-charge do with the pharmacy's acquisition and disposition records
for controlled substances?
A. Shred all records immediately upon the final day of business to protect patient privacy.
B. Transfer the records to the California State Board of Pharmacy for permanent state archiving.
C. Maintain the records in a readily retrievable location for a minimum of three years from the
date of closure.
D. Hand-deliver the records to the local police department within 48 hours of closure.
ANSWER: C. Maintain the records in a readily retrievable location for a minimum of three
years from the date of closure.
Federal and state laws require that controlled substance records be retained and kept readily
retrievable for inspection for a minimum of three years (California requirement; federal is two
years, but state law governs the stricter standard) following pharmacy closure or transfer of
ownership. Options A, B, and D describe improper disposal or handling procedures.
9. A pharmacist receives a verbal telephone order for a Schedule III controlled substance
from a registered practitioner. What specific recording and processing steps must the
pharmacist complete immediately?
A. Reduce the order to writing, including all mandatory prescription data elements, and verify
the prescriber's identity before dispensing.
B. Dispense the medication immediately and request a signed written prescription within 72
hours.
