Medical-Surgical, & NSG 432 Maternity Exam Prep |
2026/2027 Edition | 250 Verified Questions
Comprehensive Exam Review for NU 180 Exam 2, VATI Med-Surg, & NSG 432 Exam 1 | 100% Verified Solutions
with Detailed Rationales | Already Graded A+ | Updated for 2026-2027
This comprehensive exam preparation document combines three critical nursing examinations: NU 180
Nursing and Healthcare II Exam 2, RN VATI Adult Medical-Surgical Review, and NSG 432 Exam 1
covering GTPAL, Naegele's Rule, and pregnancy signs. With 250 verified questions and detailed
rationales, this resource ensures a deep understanding of key concepts across medical-surgical,
maternal-newborn, and foundational nursing practice. Each question is designed to mirror actual exam
formats, providing extensive practice for achieving a top grade.
Key Features:
250 verified exam-style questions with detailed rationales covering all three topics
In-depth coverage of GTPAL, Naegele's Rule, and pregnancy signs for maternity nursing
Adult medical-surgical review aligned with RN VATI competencies
Nursing and Healthcare II content including patient care, pharmacology, and critical thinking
Rationales that explain correct answers and common distractors for enhanced learning
Updated for 2026-2027 academic year with latest evidence-based guidelines
Updates for 2026:
- Incorporates the most recent NCLEX and VATI exam blueprints
- Revises rationales to reflect 2026-2027 clinical practice standards
- Adds new questions on emerging medical-surgical and obstetric topics
- Enhances explanation of GTPAL and Naegele's Rule calculations with step-by-step examples
- Refines distractor analysis to target common student misconceptions
Abstract:
This examination preparation resource integrates three distinct yet complementary nursing assessments: the NU
180 Nursing and Healthcare II Exam 2, the RN VATI Adult Medical-Surgical Review, and the NSG 432 Exam 1
focusing on GTPAL, Naegele's Rule, and pregnancy signs. The 250 questions have been meticulously curated and
verified to align with the content domains and cognitive levels expected in actual exams. Each item is accompanied
by a detailed rationale that not only elucidates the correct answer but also clarifies why alternative options are
incorrect, promoting a robust conceptual understanding. The document is structured to facilitate progressive
learning, with questions organized by topic and increasing difficulty. Emphasis is placed on high-yield content
areas such as patient safety, pharmacological calculations, pregnancy dating, and surgical nursing interventions,
all updated for the 2026-2027 academic cycle.
Keywords:
NU 180 Nursing and Healthcare II, RN VATI Adult Medical-Surgical, NSG 432 Exam 1, GTPAL, Naegele's Rule,
pregnancy signs, detailed rationales, verified questions, nursing exam prep 2026-2027
Answer Format:
Each question is presented in multiple-choice format followed by a comprehensive rationale. The rationale explains
the correct answer with supporting evidence, identifies common distractors, and provides clinical reasoning to
reinforce learning. Step-by-step calculations are included for GTPAL and Naegele's Rule problems.
Compliance Checklist:
Page 1
, All questions verified against 2026-2027 curriculum standards
Rationales adhere to evidence-based nursing practice
Covers all major topics from NU 180, RN VATI Med-Surg, and NSG 432
Format mimics actual exam structure (multiple choice, select all that apply, etc.)
Includes range of difficulty levels from foundational to complex
Pass guarantee supported by comprehensive content and detailed feedback
Content Area Overview:
Content Area Questions Key Topics Weight
Nursing and Healthcare II (NU 1-90 Patient safety, infection control, 36%
180 Exam 2) pharmacology, fluid/electrolytes,
perioperative care, ethical/legal issues
Adult Medical-Surgical (RN 91-170 Cardiovascular, respiratory, gastrointestinal, 36%
VATI Review) renal, endocrine, neurological,
musculoskeletal, oncology
Maternal-Newborn / Pregnancy 171-250 GTPAL, Naegele's Rule, pregnancy signs, 28%
(NSG 432 Exam 1) prenatal care, fetal development, common
discomforts, complications
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,Q1. A patient with heart failure has a weight gain of 2 kg in 24 hours despite receiving
IV furosemide 40 mg twice daily. The nurse notes a urine output of 30 mL/hr over the
last 4 hours. What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Administer a second dose of furosemide immediately.
B. Notify the healthcare provider of the patient's decreased output.
C. Increase IV fluids to improve renal perfusion.
D. Reassess the patient's lung sounds and peripheral edema.
Correct Answer: D. Reassess the patient's lung sounds and peripheral edema.
Rationale: The priority is to reassess the patient for signs of worsening heart failure (e.g.,
crackles, edema) to determine if the decreased output is due to fluid overload or renal
hypoperfusion. Notifying the provider or adjusting medications without reassessment
could be premature. Increasing fluids risks worsening pulmonary edema. Administering
another diuretic without knowing the cause may lead to hypovolemia if the issue is
prerenal.
Why Wrong:
A - Administering more furosemide without assessing may worsen hypovolemia if the
cause is prerenal azotemia.
B - Notifying the provider is appropriate but not the immediate priority before
reassessment.
C - Increasing IV fluids could cause pulmonary edema if the patient is fluid
overloaded.
Reference: Ignatavicius, D.D., & Workman, M.L. (2026). Medical-Surgical Nursing:
Concepts for Interprofessional Collaborative Care, 10th Ed., Ch. 30.
Q2. Arterial blood gas results for a patient with acute respiratory distress (RR 32, O2
sat 88% on room air) are: pH 7.52, PaCO2 28 mm Hg, HCO3- 24 mEq/L. Which
interpretation is correct?
A. Metabolic alkalosis, fully compensated.
B. Respiratory alkalosis, uncompensated.
C. Respiratory alkalosis, partially compensated.
D. Metabolic acidosis, with respiratory compensation.
Correct Answer: B. Respiratory alkalosis, uncompensated.
Rationale: pH >7.45 indicates alkalosis. PaCO2 is low (normal 35-45), consistent with
respiratory alkalosis. HCO3- is normal (22-26), indicating no renal compensation, so
uncompensated. Metabolic alkalosis would show elevated HCO3-. Partial compensation
would show a slight change in HCO3- direction.
Why Wrong:
A - Metabolic alkalosis would have elevated HCO3-, not normal.
C - Partial compensation requires a compensatory change in HCO3- (decreased in this
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, scenario), but it's normal.
D - pH is alkalotic, not acidotic.
Reference: Corbridge, S. (2026). Acid-Base Balance in Critically Ill Patients, 3rd Ed., Ch.
4.
Q3. A patient presents for prenatal care at 16 weeks gestation. History: one full-term
vaginal delivery, one preterm delivery at 32 weeks, one spontaneous abortion at 8
weeks, and one elective abortion at 12 weeks. Which is the correct GTPAL?
A. G4 T2 P1 A1 L2
B. G5 T2 P1 A1 L3
C. G5 T1 P1 A2 L2
D. G4 T1 P1 A2 L2
Correct Answer: C. G5 T1 P1 A2 L2
Rationale: Gravida = total number of pregnancies (including current): 1 current + 1
full-term + 1 preterm + 1 spontaneous abortion + 1 elective abortion = 5. Term deliveries
= 1 (the full-term). Preterm = 1 (32 weeks). Abortions = 2 (spontaneous + elective).
Living children = 2 (full-term + preterm currently alive). Thus G5 T1 P1 A2 L2.
Why Wrong:
A - G4 is incorrect because it omits the current pregnancy; T2 is incorrect because
only one term delivery.
B - L3 is incorrect because living children count is 2, not 3.
D - G4 is incorrect; T1 is correct but A2 is correct; however gravida should be 5.
Reference: Perry, S.E., et al. (2026). Maternal-Child Nursing, 6th Ed., Ch. 5.
Q4. A patient on warfarin is prescribed a 10-day course of metronidazole for a pelvic
infection. The nurse anticipates which laboratory monitoring change?
A. Increase in INR due to inhibition of warfarin metabolism.
B. Decrease in INR due to enhanced warfarin clearance.
C. No change in INR because metronidazole does not interact.
D. Increase in aPTT due to metronidazole-induced thrombocytopenia.
Correct Answer: A. Increase in INR due to inhibition of warfarin metabolism.
Rationale: Metronidazole inhibits CYP2C9, the enzyme that metabolizes the S-enantiomer
of warfarin, increasing warfarin's effect and INR. Decreased clearance leads to higher
anticoagulant activity. aPTT is not directly affected by warfarin (it monitors heparin). INR
decrease would occur with inducers like rifampin.
Why Wrong:
B - Metronidazole decreases clearance, not increase; INR will increase, not decrease.
C - There is a well-documented interaction.
D - Thrombocytopenia is not a typical effect of metronidazole; warfarin prolongs
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