[NUR 283 COMP 1-3 EXAM (GALEN)] – QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS | VERIFIED AND WELL DETAILED ANSWERS |
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Core Domains
1. Safe and Effective Care Environment
2. Health Promotion and Maintenance
3. Psychosocial Integrity
4. Physiological Integrity
5. Pharmacology and Parenteral Therapies
6. Reduction of Risk Potential
7. Physiological Adaptation
8. Professional Nursing Standards and Ethics
9. Communication and Therapeutic Relationships
10. Evidence-Based Practice and Critical Thinking
Introduction
This comprehensive examination is designed to assess the foundational knowledge and clinical reasoning skills
essential for success in NUR 283. It evaluates your understanding of core nursing concepts, including the provision of
safe, patient-centered care, health promotion, and the management of physiological and psychosocial alterations. The
exam utilizes a multiple-choice and scenario-based format to challenge your ability to apply theoretical knowledge to
practical, real-world situations. Each question emphasizes critical decision-making, prioritizing patient needs, and
,adhering to professional and legal standards. This assessment serves as a vital tool to gauge your readiness for
advanced practice and to ensure you can deliver competent and compassionate care.
SECTION ONE: QUESTIONS 1–100
1. A nurse is providing education to a client with a new diagnosis of type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which statement by
the client indicates a correct understanding of insulin administration?
A. "I should rotate my injection sites within the same anatomical region."
B. "I can keep my current vial of insulin at room temperature for up to one month."
C. "I must always aspirate for blood return before injecting my insulin."
D. "I will only need to check my blood sugar once a day since I am on insulin."
🟢B
🔴 Explanation: An open vial of insulin is stable at room temperature (59°F to 86°F) for up to 28-30 days, making
option B correct. Site rotation is recommended, but it should be within the same region to ensure consistent
absorption, not just any area. Aspiration is not recommended for insulin injections as it can cause tissue trauma.
Blood glucose monitoring is required multiple times a day for clients on insulin therapy.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative day one following a total hip arthroplasty. Which of the
following interventions is the priority to prevent complications?
A. Administer prescribed opioid analgesics as needed.
B. Encourage the client to perform ankle-pumping exercises.
C. Apply sequential compression devices (SCDs) to the lower extremities.
D. Instruct the client to use the incentive spirometer every hour while awake.
🟢C
🔴 Explanation: The priority is to prevent venous thromboembolism (VTE). Applying SCDs is a direct and immediate
,mechanical prophylaxis measure to prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which is a high risk post-hip arthroplasty.
While all options are important, SCDs directly address the highest-risk complication in the immediate postoperative
period.
3. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix). The nurse should monitor for which of the following
potential adverse effects?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Hypoglycemia
🟢B
🔴 Explanation: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that inhibits sodium and chloride reabsorption in the ascending loop
of Henle, leading to increased excretion of potassium, thus causing hypokalemia. It is associated with hyponatremia,
not hypernatremia, and does not typically cause hypoglycemia.
4. A nurse is delegating tasks to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which task is appropriate for the nurse
to delegate?
A. Administering a cleansing enema to a client.
B. Assessing the skin integrity of a client's sacral area.
C. Feeding a client with dysphagia who is at risk for aspiration.
D. Evaluating the effectiveness of a client's pain medication.
🟢C
🔴 Explanation: Feeding a stable client with a known condition like dysphagia is a task that can be delegated to a
UAP, provided they have been trained and competency is verified. Administering an enema is a nursing procedure
requiring assessment and interpretation. Assessment and evaluation are professional nursing responsibilities that
cannot be delegated.
, 5. A client is receiving a continuous heparin infusion. The nurse notes that the client's activated partial
thromboplastin time (aPTT) is 90 seconds. The baseline aPTT is 30 seconds. What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Increase the heparin infusion rate by 2 mL/hr.
B. Assess the client for signs of bleeding.
C. No action is needed; this is a therapeutic level.
D. Notify the healthcare provider to decrease the infusion rate.
🟢B
🔴 Explanation: The therapeutic aPTT for a client on heparin is typically 1.5 to 2.5 times the baseline (45-75 seconds
in this case). An aPTT of 90 seconds indicates a supratherapeutic level and a high risk for bleeding. The priority
action is to first assess the client for any signs of active bleeding (e.g., hematuria, hematemesis, bleeding gums)
before notifying the provider or adjusting the infusion.
6. A nurse is teaching a client about the adverse effects of a new medication. Which of the following is an
example of a subjective symptom the client should report?
A. A skin rash
B. An elevated temperature
C. Nausea
D. A decrease in blood pressure
🟢C
🔴 Explanation: Subjective data are symptoms that are perceived only by the client and cannot be objectively
measured or verified by the nurse. Nausea is a classic example of a subjective symptom. A skin rash, elevated
temperature, and decreased blood pressure are all objective signs that can be observed or measured.
7. A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion. Which of the following actions is most crucial to ensure
client safety?
A. Pre-medicating the client with an antihistamine.
B. Using a 20-gauge or larger IV catheter.
PLUS RATIONALES | GUARANTEED PASS | LATEST EXAM UPDATE
Core Domains
1. Safe and Effective Care Environment
2. Health Promotion and Maintenance
3. Psychosocial Integrity
4. Physiological Integrity
5. Pharmacology and Parenteral Therapies
6. Reduction of Risk Potential
7. Physiological Adaptation
8. Professional Nursing Standards and Ethics
9. Communication and Therapeutic Relationships
10. Evidence-Based Practice and Critical Thinking
Introduction
This comprehensive examination is designed to assess the foundational knowledge and clinical reasoning skills
essential for success in NUR 283. It evaluates your understanding of core nursing concepts, including the provision of
safe, patient-centered care, health promotion, and the management of physiological and psychosocial alterations. The
exam utilizes a multiple-choice and scenario-based format to challenge your ability to apply theoretical knowledge to
practical, real-world situations. Each question emphasizes critical decision-making, prioritizing patient needs, and
,adhering to professional and legal standards. This assessment serves as a vital tool to gauge your readiness for
advanced practice and to ensure you can deliver competent and compassionate care.
SECTION ONE: QUESTIONS 1–100
1. A nurse is providing education to a client with a new diagnosis of type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which statement by
the client indicates a correct understanding of insulin administration?
A. "I should rotate my injection sites within the same anatomical region."
B. "I can keep my current vial of insulin at room temperature for up to one month."
C. "I must always aspirate for blood return before injecting my insulin."
D. "I will only need to check my blood sugar once a day since I am on insulin."
🟢B
🔴 Explanation: An open vial of insulin is stable at room temperature (59°F to 86°F) for up to 28-30 days, making
option B correct. Site rotation is recommended, but it should be within the same region to ensure consistent
absorption, not just any area. Aspiration is not recommended for insulin injections as it can cause tissue trauma.
Blood glucose monitoring is required multiple times a day for clients on insulin therapy.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative day one following a total hip arthroplasty. Which of the
following interventions is the priority to prevent complications?
A. Administer prescribed opioid analgesics as needed.
B. Encourage the client to perform ankle-pumping exercises.
C. Apply sequential compression devices (SCDs) to the lower extremities.
D. Instruct the client to use the incentive spirometer every hour while awake.
🟢C
🔴 Explanation: The priority is to prevent venous thromboembolism (VTE). Applying SCDs is a direct and immediate
,mechanical prophylaxis measure to prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which is a high risk post-hip arthroplasty.
While all options are important, SCDs directly address the highest-risk complication in the immediate postoperative
period.
3. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix). The nurse should monitor for which of the following
potential adverse effects?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Hypoglycemia
🟢B
🔴 Explanation: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that inhibits sodium and chloride reabsorption in the ascending loop
of Henle, leading to increased excretion of potassium, thus causing hypokalemia. It is associated with hyponatremia,
not hypernatremia, and does not typically cause hypoglycemia.
4. A nurse is delegating tasks to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which task is appropriate for the nurse
to delegate?
A. Administering a cleansing enema to a client.
B. Assessing the skin integrity of a client's sacral area.
C. Feeding a client with dysphagia who is at risk for aspiration.
D. Evaluating the effectiveness of a client's pain medication.
🟢C
🔴 Explanation: Feeding a stable client with a known condition like dysphagia is a task that can be delegated to a
UAP, provided they have been trained and competency is verified. Administering an enema is a nursing procedure
requiring assessment and interpretation. Assessment and evaluation are professional nursing responsibilities that
cannot be delegated.
, 5. A client is receiving a continuous heparin infusion. The nurse notes that the client's activated partial
thromboplastin time (aPTT) is 90 seconds. The baseline aPTT is 30 seconds. What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Increase the heparin infusion rate by 2 mL/hr.
B. Assess the client for signs of bleeding.
C. No action is needed; this is a therapeutic level.
D. Notify the healthcare provider to decrease the infusion rate.
🟢B
🔴 Explanation: The therapeutic aPTT for a client on heparin is typically 1.5 to 2.5 times the baseline (45-75 seconds
in this case). An aPTT of 90 seconds indicates a supratherapeutic level and a high risk for bleeding. The priority
action is to first assess the client for any signs of active bleeding (e.g., hematuria, hematemesis, bleeding gums)
before notifying the provider or adjusting the infusion.
6. A nurse is teaching a client about the adverse effects of a new medication. Which of the following is an
example of a subjective symptom the client should report?
A. A skin rash
B. An elevated temperature
C. Nausea
D. A decrease in blood pressure
🟢C
🔴 Explanation: Subjective data are symptoms that are perceived only by the client and cannot be objectively
measured or verified by the nurse. Nausea is a classic example of a subjective symptom. A skin rash, elevated
temperature, and decreased blood pressure are all objective signs that can be observed or measured.
7. A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion. Which of the following actions is most crucial to ensure
client safety?
A. Pre-medicating the client with an antihistamine.
B. Using a 20-gauge or larger IV catheter.
