COMPTIA Security +
Exam
(2026–2027)
Exam Questions and Correct Answers
With Well-Elaborated Rationales | 100%
Guaranteed Pass | Latest Version |
Grade A+
,What are the non-overlapping channels for 802.11g/n? Channels 1, 6, and 11
Does the S/MIME protocol use certificates? yes
Which two ports does FTP use? ports 20 and 21
Which technique attempts to predict the likelihood that a quantitative risk analysis
threat will occur and assigns monetary values in the event
a loss occurs?
Which IPSec mode is used to create a VPN between two tunnel mode
gateways?
What is the most likely cause of a single computer The computer is infected with a botnet.
communicating with an unknown IRC server and scanning
other systems on the network?
What does the acronym IDS denote? Intrusion Detection System
Which encryption method is more scalable? Asymmetric Encryption
What is the purpose of DLP? Data Loss Prevention (DLP) is a network system that monitors data on computers
to ensure the data is not deleted or removed.
Which port number does NTP use? port 123
Which backup method backs up every file on the server A full backup
each time it is run?
What is the term for an unauthorized access that a missed detection or false negative
network-based intrusion detection system (NIDS) fails to
detect?
Which alternate computing facility is the least expensive to a cold site
maintain before a disaster occurs?
What are the three basic questions answered by the chain who controlled the evidence, who secured the evidence, and who obtained the
of custody? evidence
Which term refers to the assurance that data has not been data integrity
altered in transmission?
,What is the purpose of Platform as a Service (PaaS) in It provides not only a virtualized deployment platform but also a value-added
cloud computing? solution stack and an application development platform.
What does the acronym FCoE denote? Fibre Channel over Ethernet
At which OSI layer does IP Security (IPSec) operate? the Network layer (Layer 3)
What is meant by the term hardening? tightening control using security policies to increase system security
What do you use to control traffic from the Internet to the a firewall
LAN (local area network) by controlling the packets that
are allowed to enter the LAN?
According to CompTIA's Security+ examination blueprint, event logs, audit logs, security logs, and access logs
what are the four types of logs that you should monitor for
mitigation and deterrence?
What are the two types of eye scans? iris scans and retinal scans
What are alternate terms for cross-site request forgery session riding or one-click attack
(XSRF)?
What block cipher and key size (in bits) are used by the The Skipjack block cipher and an 80-bit key length
Clipper Chip?
Why is GPS tracking often disabled? It is considered a security threat. As long as GPS tracking is enabled and the mobile
device is powered on, the device (and possibly its user) can be located.
What is the name of the process for removing only the scrubbing
incriminating data from the audit logs?
What ensures that a user is who he claims to be? identification
Which port number does SSH use? port 22
On what does the Pretty Good Privacy (PGP) mail a web of trust
standard rely?
Which information do routers use to forward packets to the network address and subnet mask
their destinations?
, Which account should you rename immediately after the administrator account
installing a new operating system (OS) to harden the OS?
Which error condition arises because data is not checked buffer overflow errors
before input to ensure that it has an appropriate length?
What is the component included with Windows Vista and BitLocker
higher operating systems that encrypts an entire volume
with 128-bit encryption to prevent information from being
read if the drive is lost or stolen?
What is the purpose of administrative controls? to implement security policies based on procedures, standards, and guidelines
Which fire suppression method, formerly used to suppress halon gas
fires involving electrical equipment or liquids, has been
discontinued?
On which standard is Lightweight Directory Access X.500
Protocol (LDAP) based
Which public-key algorithm was the first to allow two users Diffie-Hellman
to exchange a secret key over an insecure medium without
any prior secret keys?
Which authentication protocol separates authentication TACACS+
and authorization: TACACS+ or RADIUS?
What was the first public-key algorithm ever used? Diffie-Hellman
Which tool should you use to retrieve the contents of a a protocol analyzer
GET request: a protocol analyzer or port scanner?
Which type of controls is implemented to secure physical a physical or operational control
access to an object, such as a building, a room, or a
computer?
Which protocol provides connectionless integrity, data Internet Protocol Security (IPSec)
origin authentication, replay protection, and confidentiality
(encryption) using Authentication Header (AH) and
Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP)?
What does the acronym MTTR denote? mean time to repair
What is an entity that issues and manages certificates? certification authority (CA)
According to CompTIA's Security+ examination blueprint, alarms, alerts, and trends
what are the three listed reporting techniques for mitigation
and deterrence?
Exam
(2026–2027)
Exam Questions and Correct Answers
With Well-Elaborated Rationales | 100%
Guaranteed Pass | Latest Version |
Grade A+
,What are the non-overlapping channels for 802.11g/n? Channels 1, 6, and 11
Does the S/MIME protocol use certificates? yes
Which two ports does FTP use? ports 20 and 21
Which technique attempts to predict the likelihood that a quantitative risk analysis
threat will occur and assigns monetary values in the event
a loss occurs?
Which IPSec mode is used to create a VPN between two tunnel mode
gateways?
What is the most likely cause of a single computer The computer is infected with a botnet.
communicating with an unknown IRC server and scanning
other systems on the network?
What does the acronym IDS denote? Intrusion Detection System
Which encryption method is more scalable? Asymmetric Encryption
What is the purpose of DLP? Data Loss Prevention (DLP) is a network system that monitors data on computers
to ensure the data is not deleted or removed.
Which port number does NTP use? port 123
Which backup method backs up every file on the server A full backup
each time it is run?
What is the term for an unauthorized access that a missed detection or false negative
network-based intrusion detection system (NIDS) fails to
detect?
Which alternate computing facility is the least expensive to a cold site
maintain before a disaster occurs?
What are the three basic questions answered by the chain who controlled the evidence, who secured the evidence, and who obtained the
of custody? evidence
Which term refers to the assurance that data has not been data integrity
altered in transmission?
,What is the purpose of Platform as a Service (PaaS) in It provides not only a virtualized deployment platform but also a value-added
cloud computing? solution stack and an application development platform.
What does the acronym FCoE denote? Fibre Channel over Ethernet
At which OSI layer does IP Security (IPSec) operate? the Network layer (Layer 3)
What is meant by the term hardening? tightening control using security policies to increase system security
What do you use to control traffic from the Internet to the a firewall
LAN (local area network) by controlling the packets that
are allowed to enter the LAN?
According to CompTIA's Security+ examination blueprint, event logs, audit logs, security logs, and access logs
what are the four types of logs that you should monitor for
mitigation and deterrence?
What are the two types of eye scans? iris scans and retinal scans
What are alternate terms for cross-site request forgery session riding or one-click attack
(XSRF)?
What block cipher and key size (in bits) are used by the The Skipjack block cipher and an 80-bit key length
Clipper Chip?
Why is GPS tracking often disabled? It is considered a security threat. As long as GPS tracking is enabled and the mobile
device is powered on, the device (and possibly its user) can be located.
What is the name of the process for removing only the scrubbing
incriminating data from the audit logs?
What ensures that a user is who he claims to be? identification
Which port number does SSH use? port 22
On what does the Pretty Good Privacy (PGP) mail a web of trust
standard rely?
Which information do routers use to forward packets to the network address and subnet mask
their destinations?
, Which account should you rename immediately after the administrator account
installing a new operating system (OS) to harden the OS?
Which error condition arises because data is not checked buffer overflow errors
before input to ensure that it has an appropriate length?
What is the component included with Windows Vista and BitLocker
higher operating systems that encrypts an entire volume
with 128-bit encryption to prevent information from being
read if the drive is lost or stolen?
What is the purpose of administrative controls? to implement security policies based on procedures, standards, and guidelines
Which fire suppression method, formerly used to suppress halon gas
fires involving electrical equipment or liquids, has been
discontinued?
On which standard is Lightweight Directory Access X.500
Protocol (LDAP) based
Which public-key algorithm was the first to allow two users Diffie-Hellman
to exchange a secret key over an insecure medium without
any prior secret keys?
Which authentication protocol separates authentication TACACS+
and authorization: TACACS+ or RADIUS?
What was the first public-key algorithm ever used? Diffie-Hellman
Which tool should you use to retrieve the contents of a a protocol analyzer
GET request: a protocol analyzer or port scanner?
Which type of controls is implemented to secure physical a physical or operational control
access to an object, such as a building, a room, or a
computer?
Which protocol provides connectionless integrity, data Internet Protocol Security (IPSec)
origin authentication, replay protection, and confidentiality
(encryption) using Authentication Header (AH) and
Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP)?
What does the acronym MTTR denote? mean time to repair
What is an entity that issues and manages certificates? certification authority (CA)
According to CompTIA's Security+ examination blueprint, alarms, alerts, and trends
what are the three listed reporting techniques for mitigation
and deterrence?
