CMN 574 EXAM 2 STUDY GUIDE 2026/2027
COMPLETE QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES ||
100% GUARANTEED PASS LATEST VERSION
Course Information
• Course: CMN 574 - Family Nurse Practitioner Program
• Exam: Exam 2
• Focus: Advanced health assessment and clinical management of complex health
problems across the lifespan
Exam Content Areas & Weight Distribution
Content Area Approximate % Number of Questions
Musculoskeletal Disorders 25% 75-80 questions
Chest Pain & Cardiac Evaluation 20% 60-65 questions
Gastrointestinal Disorders 15% 45-50 questions
Pediatric & Congenital Conditions 15% 45-50 questions
Infectious Disease & Immunology 10% 30-35 questions
Clinical Decision-Making & Diagnostics 10% 30-35 questions
Neurological & ENT 5% 15-20 questions
,Question 1
A newborn is found to have asymmetrical skin folds in the gluteal area. The nurse
performs the Barlow maneuver and hears a "clunk" as the femoral head moves out of
the joint. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Torticollis
B) Developmental Dysplasia of the Hip (DDH)
C) Congenital limb deficiency
D) Metatarsus adductus
Answer: B - The Barlow sign is positive when the femoral head "pops" out of the joint
during adduction of the thigh. Asymmetrical skin folds may be present in up to 25% of
newborns, including those without dysplasia. Ultrasound is the most reliable diagnosis in
newborns (<6 weeks); plain films become helpful after the infant reaches 6 weeks of
age.
Question 2
What is the Barlow sign used to assess?
A) Hip stability and detect developmental dysplasia of the hip
B) Shoulder instability
C) Knee ligament integrity
D) Ankle stability
Answer: A - The Barlow sign assesses hip stability by adducting the medial side of the
thigh and listening for a "clunk" as the femoral head "pops" out of the joint. This
indicates an unstable hip that is dislocatable.
Question 3
A 2-month-old infant is brought to the clinic for a well-child visit. The parents are
concerned about asymmetrical skin folds on the infant's thighs. What is the most
appropriate diagnostic test?
A) Plain X-ray of the hips
B) Ultrasound of the hips
,C) CT scan of the hips
D) MRI of the hips
Answer: B - Ultrasound is the most reliable diagnosis for hip dysplasia in newborns
under 6 weeks of age. Plain films become helpful after the infant reaches 6 weeks of
age.
Question 4
A child who has been walking for several months presents with a painless limp and a dip
in the pelvis when standing on the affected leg. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Developmental Dysplasia of the Hip
B) Torticollis
C) Scoliosis
D) Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease
Answer: A - After 30 days of age, symptoms of DDH are less evident. A painless limp is
present after the child begins to walk. The Trendelenburg sign/lurch (dip in pelvis when
standing on affected leg) indicates weakness in the gluteal muscles, which is
characteristic of DDH.
Question 5
What is the Trendelenburg sign?
A) Dip in the pelvis when standing on the affected leg
B) Head tilt toward the side of the spasm
C) Clunk when the femoral head moves out of the joint
D) Asymmetrical skin folds
Answer: A - The Trendelenburg sign is a dip in the pelvis when standing on the affected
leg, indicating weakness in the gluteal muscles. This is seen in hip dysplasia after the
child begins to walk.
, Question 6
A newborn presents with the head tilted toward the right and the chin rotated to the
left. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Developmental Dysplasia of the Hip
B) Torticollis
C) Plagiocephaly
D) Craniosynostosis
Answer: B - Torticollis is characterized by the head tilting toward the side of the spasm
and the chin rotating to the OPPOSITE side of the spasm.
Question 7
What is the cause of torticollis?
A) Damage to the sternocleidomastoid muscle
B) Congenital deformity of the cervical spine
C) Tumors of the spinal cord or cerebellum
D) All of the above
Answer: D - Torticollis can be caused by damage to the sternocleidomastoid muscle OR
an underlying disease process including congenital deformity of the cervical spine,
tumors of the spinal cord or cerebellum, syringomyelia, or rheumatoid arthritis.
Question 8
What is the most effective treatment for torticollis?
A) Surgery
B) Passive stretching
C) Cervical collar
D) NSAIDs
Answer: B - Passive stretching is effective in up to 97% of all cases of torticollis.
COMPLETE QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES ||
100% GUARANTEED PASS LATEST VERSION
Course Information
• Course: CMN 574 - Family Nurse Practitioner Program
• Exam: Exam 2
• Focus: Advanced health assessment and clinical management of complex health
problems across the lifespan
Exam Content Areas & Weight Distribution
Content Area Approximate % Number of Questions
Musculoskeletal Disorders 25% 75-80 questions
Chest Pain & Cardiac Evaluation 20% 60-65 questions
Gastrointestinal Disorders 15% 45-50 questions
Pediatric & Congenital Conditions 15% 45-50 questions
Infectious Disease & Immunology 10% 30-35 questions
Clinical Decision-Making & Diagnostics 10% 30-35 questions
Neurological & ENT 5% 15-20 questions
,Question 1
A newborn is found to have asymmetrical skin folds in the gluteal area. The nurse
performs the Barlow maneuver and hears a "clunk" as the femoral head moves out of
the joint. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Torticollis
B) Developmental Dysplasia of the Hip (DDH)
C) Congenital limb deficiency
D) Metatarsus adductus
Answer: B - The Barlow sign is positive when the femoral head "pops" out of the joint
during adduction of the thigh. Asymmetrical skin folds may be present in up to 25% of
newborns, including those without dysplasia. Ultrasound is the most reliable diagnosis in
newborns (<6 weeks); plain films become helpful after the infant reaches 6 weeks of
age.
Question 2
What is the Barlow sign used to assess?
A) Hip stability and detect developmental dysplasia of the hip
B) Shoulder instability
C) Knee ligament integrity
D) Ankle stability
Answer: A - The Barlow sign assesses hip stability by adducting the medial side of the
thigh and listening for a "clunk" as the femoral head "pops" out of the joint. This
indicates an unstable hip that is dislocatable.
Question 3
A 2-month-old infant is brought to the clinic for a well-child visit. The parents are
concerned about asymmetrical skin folds on the infant's thighs. What is the most
appropriate diagnostic test?
A) Plain X-ray of the hips
B) Ultrasound of the hips
,C) CT scan of the hips
D) MRI of the hips
Answer: B - Ultrasound is the most reliable diagnosis for hip dysplasia in newborns
under 6 weeks of age. Plain films become helpful after the infant reaches 6 weeks of
age.
Question 4
A child who has been walking for several months presents with a painless limp and a dip
in the pelvis when standing on the affected leg. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Developmental Dysplasia of the Hip
B) Torticollis
C) Scoliosis
D) Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease
Answer: A - After 30 days of age, symptoms of DDH are less evident. A painless limp is
present after the child begins to walk. The Trendelenburg sign/lurch (dip in pelvis when
standing on affected leg) indicates weakness in the gluteal muscles, which is
characteristic of DDH.
Question 5
What is the Trendelenburg sign?
A) Dip in the pelvis when standing on the affected leg
B) Head tilt toward the side of the spasm
C) Clunk when the femoral head moves out of the joint
D) Asymmetrical skin folds
Answer: A - The Trendelenburg sign is a dip in the pelvis when standing on the affected
leg, indicating weakness in the gluteal muscles. This is seen in hip dysplasia after the
child begins to walk.
, Question 6
A newborn presents with the head tilted toward the right and the chin rotated to the
left. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Developmental Dysplasia of the Hip
B) Torticollis
C) Plagiocephaly
D) Craniosynostosis
Answer: B - Torticollis is characterized by the head tilting toward the side of the spasm
and the chin rotating to the OPPOSITE side of the spasm.
Question 7
What is the cause of torticollis?
A) Damage to the sternocleidomastoid muscle
B) Congenital deformity of the cervical spine
C) Tumors of the spinal cord or cerebellum
D) All of the above
Answer: D - Torticollis can be caused by damage to the sternocleidomastoid muscle OR
an underlying disease process including congenital deformity of the cervical spine,
tumors of the spinal cord or cerebellum, syringomyelia, or rheumatoid arthritis.
Question 8
What is the most effective treatment for torticollis?
A) Surgery
B) Passive stretching
C) Cervical collar
D) NSAIDs
Answer: B - Passive stretching is effective in up to 97% of all cases of torticollis.
