, BSN 366 EXIT HESI EXAM Complete Question
Bank with Answers & Rationales Updated for
2026 | 300+ Questions | Graded A+
Question 1
The nurse discovers that an older adult client with no
history of cardiac or renal disease has an elevated
serum magnesium level. To further investigate the
cause of this electrolyte imbalance, which
information is most important for the nurse to
obtain from the client's medical history?
A. Genetically inherited disorders of family members.
B. Frequency of laxative use for chronic constipation.
C. Ingestion of shellfish or fish oil capsules daily.
D. Length and frequency of the client's tobacco use.
Answer: B. Frequency of laxative use for chronic
constipation.
Rationale: Many over-the-counter laxatives contain
magnesium. Chronic laxative use can lead to
hypermagnesemia, especially in older adults, even
without pre-existing renal disease.
,Question 2
A client who underwent an uncomplicated gastric
bypass surgery is having difficulty with diet
management. Which dietary instruction is most
important for the nurse to explain to the client?
A. Eat food slowly and thoroughly before attempting
to swallow.
B. Plan volume-controlled, evenly spaced meals
throughout the day.
C. Sip fluids slowly with each meal and between
meals.
D. Eliminate or reduce intake of fatty and gas-
forming foods.
Answer: B. Plan volume-controlled, evenly spaced
meals throughout the day.
Rationale: After gastric bypass, the stomach
capacity is significantly reduced. Clients must adhere
to a diet of small, frequent meals to avoid dumping
, syndrome and ensure adequate nutrition. This
instruction is crucial for long-term success.
Question 3
A client with an acute myocardial infarction is given
a thrombolytic medication, aspirin, and IV heparin in
the emergency department. Which finding indicates
the client is having a satisfactory response?
A. Activated partial thromboplastin (aPTT) time is
two times the control value.
B. Cardiac tracing shows 1.2 mm wide Q waves half
the height of the complex.
C. Guaiac test of the stools is positive.
D. S3 heart sounds are present with auscultation.
Answer: A. Activated partial thromboplastin (aPTT)
time is two times the control value.
Rationale: Heparin therapy is considered
therapeutic when the aPTT is 1.5 to 2.5 times the
normal control value. This indicates adequate
anticoagulation to prevent further clot formation.
Bank with Answers & Rationales Updated for
2026 | 300+ Questions | Graded A+
Question 1
The nurse discovers that an older adult client with no
history of cardiac or renal disease has an elevated
serum magnesium level. To further investigate the
cause of this electrolyte imbalance, which
information is most important for the nurse to
obtain from the client's medical history?
A. Genetically inherited disorders of family members.
B. Frequency of laxative use for chronic constipation.
C. Ingestion of shellfish or fish oil capsules daily.
D. Length and frequency of the client's tobacco use.
Answer: B. Frequency of laxative use for chronic
constipation.
Rationale: Many over-the-counter laxatives contain
magnesium. Chronic laxative use can lead to
hypermagnesemia, especially in older adults, even
without pre-existing renal disease.
,Question 2
A client who underwent an uncomplicated gastric
bypass surgery is having difficulty with diet
management. Which dietary instruction is most
important for the nurse to explain to the client?
A. Eat food slowly and thoroughly before attempting
to swallow.
B. Plan volume-controlled, evenly spaced meals
throughout the day.
C. Sip fluids slowly with each meal and between
meals.
D. Eliminate or reduce intake of fatty and gas-
forming foods.
Answer: B. Plan volume-controlled, evenly spaced
meals throughout the day.
Rationale: After gastric bypass, the stomach
capacity is significantly reduced. Clients must adhere
to a diet of small, frequent meals to avoid dumping
, syndrome and ensure adequate nutrition. This
instruction is crucial for long-term success.
Question 3
A client with an acute myocardial infarction is given
a thrombolytic medication, aspirin, and IV heparin in
the emergency department. Which finding indicates
the client is having a satisfactory response?
A. Activated partial thromboplastin (aPTT) time is
two times the control value.
B. Cardiac tracing shows 1.2 mm wide Q waves half
the height of the complex.
C. Guaiac test of the stools is positive.
D. S3 heart sounds are present with auscultation.
Answer: A. Activated partial thromboplastin (aPTT)
time is two times the control value.
Rationale: Heparin therapy is considered
therapeutic when the aPTT is 1.5 to 2.5 times the
normal control value. This indicates adequate
anticoagulation to prevent further clot formation.
