, APEA Women's Health Final Exam Prep
2026/2027 – Complete 200+ Q&A Test Bank with
Verified Answers & Detailed Rationales | WHNP
& NP 3P Exam | NCC-Aligned | Graded A+ |
Instant Download
Question 1
A 28-year-old woman reports heavy, regular menses
every 28 days lasting 8 days with clots and soaking
through a pad every 2 hours. Which term best
describes this?
A) Menorrhagia
B) Metrorrhagia
C) Menometrorrhagia
D) Oligomenorrhea
Answer: A) Menorrhagia
Rationale: Menorrhagia is heavy but regular
menstrual bleeding (duration >7 days or >80 mL
blood loss). Metrorrhagia is irregular bleeding
between periods; menometrorrhagia is heavy
irregular bleeding; oligomenorrhea is infrequent
,menses (>35 days). This patient has regular cycles,
so menorrhagia is correct .
Question 2
A 42-year-old woman with menorrhagia and
dysmenorrhea has a diffusely enlarged, globular,
nontender uterus on bimanual exam. The most likely
diagnosis is:
A) Uterine fibroids (leiomyomas)
B) Adenomyosis
C) Endometrial polyp
D) Endometrial cancer
Answer: B) Adenomyosis
Rationale: Adenomyosis (endometrial glands within
the myometrium) causes diffuse symmetric uterine
enlargement, menorrhagia, and painful menses.
Fibroids cause irregularly enlarged uterus; polyps do
not enlarge uterus globally; cancer rarely presents
with this exam in absence of risk factors .
, Question 3
A 35-year-old woman has intermenstrual spotting
and pelvic pressure. Ultrasound shows a 2 cm
intracavitary mass. What is the next best step?
A) Endometrial biopsy
B) Hysteroscopy with polypectomy
C) Observation for 3 months
D) Dilation and curettage (D&C)
Answer: B) Hysteroscopy with polypectomy
Rationale: A suspected endometrial polyp should be
evaluated with hysteroscopy, which allows
visualization and removal. Endometrial biopsy can
miss polyps. Observation is not indicated for a
symptomatic polyp .
Question 4
A 25-year-old woman with normal menses has a 4-
week history of daily spotting. Pregnancy test is
negative. TSH and prolactin are normal. What is the
next step?
2026/2027 – Complete 200+ Q&A Test Bank with
Verified Answers & Detailed Rationales | WHNP
& NP 3P Exam | NCC-Aligned | Graded A+ |
Instant Download
Question 1
A 28-year-old woman reports heavy, regular menses
every 28 days lasting 8 days with clots and soaking
through a pad every 2 hours. Which term best
describes this?
A) Menorrhagia
B) Metrorrhagia
C) Menometrorrhagia
D) Oligomenorrhea
Answer: A) Menorrhagia
Rationale: Menorrhagia is heavy but regular
menstrual bleeding (duration >7 days or >80 mL
blood loss). Metrorrhagia is irregular bleeding
between periods; menometrorrhagia is heavy
irregular bleeding; oligomenorrhea is infrequent
,menses (>35 days). This patient has regular cycles,
so menorrhagia is correct .
Question 2
A 42-year-old woman with menorrhagia and
dysmenorrhea has a diffusely enlarged, globular,
nontender uterus on bimanual exam. The most likely
diagnosis is:
A) Uterine fibroids (leiomyomas)
B) Adenomyosis
C) Endometrial polyp
D) Endometrial cancer
Answer: B) Adenomyosis
Rationale: Adenomyosis (endometrial glands within
the myometrium) causes diffuse symmetric uterine
enlargement, menorrhagia, and painful menses.
Fibroids cause irregularly enlarged uterus; polyps do
not enlarge uterus globally; cancer rarely presents
with this exam in absence of risk factors .
, Question 3
A 35-year-old woman has intermenstrual spotting
and pelvic pressure. Ultrasound shows a 2 cm
intracavitary mass. What is the next best step?
A) Endometrial biopsy
B) Hysteroscopy with polypectomy
C) Observation for 3 months
D) Dilation and curettage (D&C)
Answer: B) Hysteroscopy with polypectomy
Rationale: A suspected endometrial polyp should be
evaluated with hysteroscopy, which allows
visualization and removal. Endometrial biopsy can
miss polyps. Observation is not indicated for a
symptomatic polyp .
Question 4
A 25-year-old woman with normal menses has a 4-
week history of daily spotting. Pregnancy test is
negative. TSH and prolactin are normal. What is the
next step?
