,APEA Reproductive Women's Health Questions &
Answers 2026 – High-Yield Review with 300+
Q&A, Verified Answers & Detailed Clinical
Rationales | WHNP & NP 3P Exam Prep | NCC-
Aligned | Graded A+ | Instant Download
Question 1:
A 28-year-old woman reports heavy, regular menses
every 28 days lasting 8 days with clots and soaking
through a pad every 2 hours. Which term best
describes this?
A) Menorrhagia
B) Metrorrhagia
C) Menometrorrhagia
D) Oligomenorrhea
Answer: A) Menorrhagia
Rationale: Menorrhagia is defined as heavy but
regular menstrual bleeding with duration >7 days or
>80 mL blood loss. This patient has regular cycles
with heavy bleeding, so menorrhagia is correct.
,Metrorrhagia is irregular bleeding between periods.
Menometrorrhagia is heavy irregular bleeding.
Oligomenorrhea is infrequent menses (>35-day
intervals).
Question 2:
A 42-year-old with menorrhagia and dysmenorrhea
has a diffusely enlarged, globular, nontender uterus
on bimanual exam. The most likely diagnosis is:
A) Uterine fibroids (leiomyomas)
B) Adenomyosis
C) Endometrial polyp
D) Endometrial cancer
Answer: B) Adenomyosis
Rationale: Adenomyosis (endometrial glands within
the myometrium) causes diffuse symmetric uterine
enlargement, menorrhagia, and painful menses.
Fibroids cause an irregularly enlarged uterus. Polyps
do not enlarge the uterus globally. Endometrial
, cancer rarely presents this way in the absence of risk
factors.
Question 3:
Which of the following is NOT a pathological
characteristic of polycystic ovarian syndrome
(PCOS)?
A) Excess androgen
B) Insulin resistance
C) Anovulation
D) Decreased LH/FSH ratio
Answer: D) Decreased LH/FSH ratio
Rationale: PCOS is characterized by an elevated
LH/FSH ratio (typically >2:1), not a decreased ratio.
Other characteristics include excess androgen,
insulin resistance, and anovulation.
Answers 2026 – High-Yield Review with 300+
Q&A, Verified Answers & Detailed Clinical
Rationales | WHNP & NP 3P Exam Prep | NCC-
Aligned | Graded A+ | Instant Download
Question 1:
A 28-year-old woman reports heavy, regular menses
every 28 days lasting 8 days with clots and soaking
through a pad every 2 hours. Which term best
describes this?
A) Menorrhagia
B) Metrorrhagia
C) Menometrorrhagia
D) Oligomenorrhea
Answer: A) Menorrhagia
Rationale: Menorrhagia is defined as heavy but
regular menstrual bleeding with duration >7 days or
>80 mL blood loss. This patient has regular cycles
with heavy bleeding, so menorrhagia is correct.
,Metrorrhagia is irregular bleeding between periods.
Menometrorrhagia is heavy irregular bleeding.
Oligomenorrhea is infrequent menses (>35-day
intervals).
Question 2:
A 42-year-old with menorrhagia and dysmenorrhea
has a diffusely enlarged, globular, nontender uterus
on bimanual exam. The most likely diagnosis is:
A) Uterine fibroids (leiomyomas)
B) Adenomyosis
C) Endometrial polyp
D) Endometrial cancer
Answer: B) Adenomyosis
Rationale: Adenomyosis (endometrial glands within
the myometrium) causes diffuse symmetric uterine
enlargement, menorrhagia, and painful menses.
Fibroids cause an irregularly enlarged uterus. Polyps
do not enlarge the uterus globally. Endometrial
, cancer rarely presents this way in the absence of risk
factors.
Question 3:
Which of the following is NOT a pathological
characteristic of polycystic ovarian syndrome
(PCOS)?
A) Excess androgen
B) Insulin resistance
C) Anovulation
D) Decreased LH/FSH ratio
Answer: D) Decreased LH/FSH ratio
Rationale: PCOS is characterized by an elevated
LH/FSH ratio (typically >2:1), not a decreased ratio.
Other characteristics include excess androgen,
insulin resistance, and anovulation.
