,APEA Women's Health Complete Review 2026 – 300+
Q&A Test Bank with Verified Answers & Detailed
Clinical Rationales | WHNP & NP 3P Exam Prep | NCC-
Aligned | Latest Update | Graded A+
Question 1:
A 28-year-old woman reports heavy, regular menses
every 28 days lasting 8 days with clots and soaking
through a pad every 2 hours. Which term best
describes this?
A) Menorrhagia
B) Metrorrhagia
C) Menometrorrhagia
D) Oligomenorrhea
Answer: A) Menorrhagia
Rationale: Menorrhagia is defined as heavy but
regular menstrual bleeding with duration >7 days or
>80 mL blood loss. Metrorrhagia is irregular
bleeding between periods. Menometrorrhagia is
heavy irregular bleeding. Oligomenorrhea is
infrequent menses (>35-day intervals).
,Question 2:
A 42-year-old with menorrhagia and dysmenorrhea
has a diffusely enlarged, globular, nontender uterus
on bimanual exam. The most likely diagnosis is:
A) Uterine fibroids (leiomyomas)
B) Adenomyosis
C) Endometrial polyp
D) Endometrial cancer
Answer: B) Adenomyosis
Rationale: Adenomyosis (endometrial glands within
the myometrium) causes diffuse symmetric uterine
enlargement, menorrhagia, and painful menses.
Fibroids cause an irregularly enlarged uterus. Polyps
do not enlarge the uterus globally. Endometrial
cancer rarely presents this way in the absence of risk
factors.
, Question 3:
A 35-year-old has intermenstrual spotting and pelvic
pressure. Ultrasound shows a 2 cm intracavitary
mass. What is the next best step?
A) Endometrial biopsy
B) Hysteroscopy with polypectomy
C) Observation for 3 months
D) Dilation and curettage (D&C)
Answer: B) Hysteroscopy with polypectomy
Rationale: Suspected endometrial polyp requires
hysteroscopy for visualization and removal.
Endometrial biopsy can miss polyps. Observation is
not indicated for a symptomatic polyp. D&C is less
accurate than hysteroscopy for focal lesions.
Question 4:
A 25-year-old with normal menses has a 4-week
history of daily spotting. Pregnancy test is negative.
TSH and prolactin are normal. What is the next step?
Q&A Test Bank with Verified Answers & Detailed
Clinical Rationales | WHNP & NP 3P Exam Prep | NCC-
Aligned | Latest Update | Graded A+
Question 1:
A 28-year-old woman reports heavy, regular menses
every 28 days lasting 8 days with clots and soaking
through a pad every 2 hours. Which term best
describes this?
A) Menorrhagia
B) Metrorrhagia
C) Menometrorrhagia
D) Oligomenorrhea
Answer: A) Menorrhagia
Rationale: Menorrhagia is defined as heavy but
regular menstrual bleeding with duration >7 days or
>80 mL blood loss. Metrorrhagia is irregular
bleeding between periods. Menometrorrhagia is
heavy irregular bleeding. Oligomenorrhea is
infrequent menses (>35-day intervals).
,Question 2:
A 42-year-old with menorrhagia and dysmenorrhea
has a diffusely enlarged, globular, nontender uterus
on bimanual exam. The most likely diagnosis is:
A) Uterine fibroids (leiomyomas)
B) Adenomyosis
C) Endometrial polyp
D) Endometrial cancer
Answer: B) Adenomyosis
Rationale: Adenomyosis (endometrial glands within
the myometrium) causes diffuse symmetric uterine
enlargement, menorrhagia, and painful menses.
Fibroids cause an irregularly enlarged uterus. Polyps
do not enlarge the uterus globally. Endometrial
cancer rarely presents this way in the absence of risk
factors.
, Question 3:
A 35-year-old has intermenstrual spotting and pelvic
pressure. Ultrasound shows a 2 cm intracavitary
mass. What is the next best step?
A) Endometrial biopsy
B) Hysteroscopy with polypectomy
C) Observation for 3 months
D) Dilation and curettage (D&C)
Answer: B) Hysteroscopy with polypectomy
Rationale: Suspected endometrial polyp requires
hysteroscopy for visualization and removal.
Endometrial biopsy can miss polyps. Observation is
not indicated for a symptomatic polyp. D&C is less
accurate than hysteroscopy for focal lesions.
Question 4:
A 25-year-old with normal menses has a 4-week
history of daily spotting. Pregnancy test is negative.
TSH and prolactin are normal. What is the next step?
