PN HESI Exit Exam V6 with NGN
Questions and Ansẉers with
Rationales 2026\2027 update
This Exam contains:
Guarantee passing score
Questions and Ansẉers
format set of multiple-choice
Expert-Verified rationales
Verified ẉith trusted textbooks
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1. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide 40 mg IV
push. Which finding indicates the medication is effective?
A) Decreased blood pressure and increased urine output
B) Increased heart rate and decreased respiratory rate
C) Weight gain of 1 kg in 24 hours and dry mucous membranes
D) Decreased deep tendon reflexes and increased blood pressure
Answer: A
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic used to reduce fluid volume
overload in heart failure. Expected outcomes include increased urine
output (diuresis) and a subsequent decrease in blood pressure due
to fluid reduction. Weight gain indicates fluid retention, and
decreased reflexes are associated with electrolyte imbalances like
hypokalemia, not the primary therapeutic effect.
2. The nurse is caring for a client with a nasogastric (NG) tube
connected to low intermittent suction. Which finding requires
immediate intervention?
A) The client complains of a sore throat.
B) The drainage is bright red and copious.
C) The NG tube is clamped during medication administration.
D) The client's abdomen is soft and non-distended.
Answer: B
Rationale: Bright red and copious drainage indicates active
gastrointestinal bleeding, which is a medical emergency requiring
immediate intervention. A sore throat is common with NG tubes.
Clamping the tube briefly during medication administration is
standard practice to prevent medication from being suctioned out
immediately. A soft, non-distended abdomen is a normal finding.
,3. An older adult client is admitted with dehydration. The provider
orders IV fluids at 100 mL/hr. Which assessment finding indicates
the client is developing fluid overload?
A) Urine output of 50 mL/hr
B) Basilar crackles in the lungs
C) Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg
D) Serum sodium level of 140 mEq/L
Answer: B
Rationale: Basilar crackles indicate fluid accumulation in the lungs, a
hallmark sign of fluid overload. Older adults are particularly
susceptible to fluid overload due to decreased cardiac and renal
function. Urine output of 50 mL/hr is adequate. The BP and sodium
levels are within normal limits.
4. A client is receiving warfarin therapy for atrial fibrillation. The
client’s INR is 5.5. Which medication should the nurse anticipate
administering?
A) Protamine sulfate
B) Vitamin K
C) Atropine
D) Acetylcysteine
Answer: B
Rationale: The therapeutic INR range for a client on warfarin (for
atrial fibrillation) is typically 2.0 to 3.0. An INR of 5.5 indicates a
high risk for bleeding. The antidote for warfarin is Vitamin K.
Protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin.
5. NGN Multiple Response: The nurse is planning care for a client
diagnosed with a stroke. Which of the following interventions should
the nurse include to prevent aspiration? Select all that apply.
A) Place the client in a semi-Fowler's position during meals.
B) Instruct the client to tilt their head back when swallowing.
C) Offer thin liquids to facilitate easier swallowing.
D) Check the client's mouth for pocketed food after eating.
, E) Allow 45 minutes for the client to complete their meal.
Answer: A, D, E
Rationale: Semi-Fowler's position uses gravity to aid swallowing and
prevent aspiration. Checking for pocketed food ensures the client
has cleared their mouth, preventing aspiration of leftover food later.
Allowing ample time (45 mins) prevents fatigue, which can
compromise the swallowing mechanism. The head should be tilted
forward (chin tuck), not back, to open the airway less and protect
the trachea. Thin liquids are the hardest to swallow and most likely
to cause aspiration; thickened liquids are recommended.
6. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus reports feeling shaky,
sweaty, and confused. What is the nurse's priority action?
A) Administer 10 units of regular insulin subcutaneously.
B) Give the client 4 oz of regular soda or fruit juice.
C) Check the client's blood glucose level.
D) Call the rapid response team.
Answer: B
Rationale: The client is exhibiting classic signs of hypoglycemia.
While checking the blood glucose (Option C) is important, the
priority nursing action when a conscious client is showing severe
hypoglycemic symptoms is to provide a fast-acting carbohydrate
(like regular soda or juice) to prevent neurologic damage or coma.
Insulin would worsen the condition.
7. The nurse is caring for a client who is 24 hours postoperative
following an abdominal hysterectomy. Which finding should be
reported to the provider immediately?
A) Urine output of 30 mL/hr
B) Calf pain with dorsiflexion of the foot
C) Absent bowel sounds in all four quadrants
D) Serous drainage on the abdominal dressing
Answer: B
Questions and Ansẉers with
Rationales 2026\2027 update
This Exam contains:
Guarantee passing score
Questions and Ansẉers
format set of multiple-choice
Expert-Verified rationales
Verified ẉith trusted textbooks
,───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
1. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide 40 mg IV
push. Which finding indicates the medication is effective?
A) Decreased blood pressure and increased urine output
B) Increased heart rate and decreased respiratory rate
C) Weight gain of 1 kg in 24 hours and dry mucous membranes
D) Decreased deep tendon reflexes and increased blood pressure
Answer: A
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic used to reduce fluid volume
overload in heart failure. Expected outcomes include increased urine
output (diuresis) and a subsequent decrease in blood pressure due
to fluid reduction. Weight gain indicates fluid retention, and
decreased reflexes are associated with electrolyte imbalances like
hypokalemia, not the primary therapeutic effect.
2. The nurse is caring for a client with a nasogastric (NG) tube
connected to low intermittent suction. Which finding requires
immediate intervention?
A) The client complains of a sore throat.
B) The drainage is bright red and copious.
C) The NG tube is clamped during medication administration.
D) The client's abdomen is soft and non-distended.
Answer: B
Rationale: Bright red and copious drainage indicates active
gastrointestinal bleeding, which is a medical emergency requiring
immediate intervention. A sore throat is common with NG tubes.
Clamping the tube briefly during medication administration is
standard practice to prevent medication from being suctioned out
immediately. A soft, non-distended abdomen is a normal finding.
,3. An older adult client is admitted with dehydration. The provider
orders IV fluids at 100 mL/hr. Which assessment finding indicates
the client is developing fluid overload?
A) Urine output of 50 mL/hr
B) Basilar crackles in the lungs
C) Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg
D) Serum sodium level of 140 mEq/L
Answer: B
Rationale: Basilar crackles indicate fluid accumulation in the lungs, a
hallmark sign of fluid overload. Older adults are particularly
susceptible to fluid overload due to decreased cardiac and renal
function. Urine output of 50 mL/hr is adequate. The BP and sodium
levels are within normal limits.
4. A client is receiving warfarin therapy for atrial fibrillation. The
client’s INR is 5.5. Which medication should the nurse anticipate
administering?
A) Protamine sulfate
B) Vitamin K
C) Atropine
D) Acetylcysteine
Answer: B
Rationale: The therapeutic INR range for a client on warfarin (for
atrial fibrillation) is typically 2.0 to 3.0. An INR of 5.5 indicates a
high risk for bleeding. The antidote for warfarin is Vitamin K.
Protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin.
5. NGN Multiple Response: The nurse is planning care for a client
diagnosed with a stroke. Which of the following interventions should
the nurse include to prevent aspiration? Select all that apply.
A) Place the client in a semi-Fowler's position during meals.
B) Instruct the client to tilt their head back when swallowing.
C) Offer thin liquids to facilitate easier swallowing.
D) Check the client's mouth for pocketed food after eating.
, E) Allow 45 minutes for the client to complete their meal.
Answer: A, D, E
Rationale: Semi-Fowler's position uses gravity to aid swallowing and
prevent aspiration. Checking for pocketed food ensures the client
has cleared their mouth, preventing aspiration of leftover food later.
Allowing ample time (45 mins) prevents fatigue, which can
compromise the swallowing mechanism. The head should be tilted
forward (chin tuck), not back, to open the airway less and protect
the trachea. Thin liquids are the hardest to swallow and most likely
to cause aspiration; thickened liquids are recommended.
6. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus reports feeling shaky,
sweaty, and confused. What is the nurse's priority action?
A) Administer 10 units of regular insulin subcutaneously.
B) Give the client 4 oz of regular soda or fruit juice.
C) Check the client's blood glucose level.
D) Call the rapid response team.
Answer: B
Rationale: The client is exhibiting classic signs of hypoglycemia.
While checking the blood glucose (Option C) is important, the
priority nursing action when a conscious client is showing severe
hypoglycemic symptoms is to provide a fast-acting carbohydrate
(like regular soda or juice) to prevent neurologic damage or coma.
Insulin would worsen the condition.
7. The nurse is caring for a client who is 24 hours postoperative
following an abdominal hysterectomy. Which finding should be
reported to the provider immediately?
A) Urine output of 30 mL/hr
B) Calf pain with dorsiflexion of the foot
C) Absent bowel sounds in all four quadrants
D) Serous drainage on the abdominal dressing
Answer: B
