PN HESI Exit Exam V2 with NGN
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,───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
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A practical nurse (PN) is caring for a client who is 2 hours
postoperative following a cholecystectomy. Which of the following
findings should the PN identify as the priority to report to the
charge nurse?
A. The client reports pain at a 4 on a scale of 0 to 10.
B. The client's abdominal dressing has a small amount of
serosanguineous drainage.
C. The client's oxygen saturation is 90% on room air.
D. The client has not passed flatus since surgery.
Answer: C
Rationale: Using the ABC (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) approach,
an oxygen saturation of 90% indicates hypoxia and is the priority
finding. Postoperative clients are at risk for atelectasis and
pneumonia due to decreased lung expansion from anesthesia and
incisional pain. Pain, small amounts of serosanguineous drainage,
and lack of flatus are expected or non-urgent findings in the
immediate postoperative period.
A PN is reinforcing teaching with a client who has a new prescription
for warfarin. Which of the following statements by the client
indicates an understanding of the teaching?
A. "I will eat more foods high in vitamin K, like spinach."
B. "I will use a soft-bristled toothbrush."
C. "I will take an aspirin if I get a headache."
D. "I will expect my urine to turn orange."
Answer: B
Rationale: Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases the client's
risk for bleeding. Using a soft-bristled toothbrush decreases the risk
of bleeding gums. Vitamin K counteracts warfarin, so the intake
,should remain consistent, not increased. Aspirin also increases
bleeding risk and should be avoided unless prescribed. Orange
urine is not an expected effect of warfarin.
A PN is collecting data from a client who has chronic kidney disease
(CKD). Which of the following findings should the PN expect?
A. Bradycardia
B. Hypotension
C. Increased urinary output
D. Pruritus
Answer: D
Rationale: Pruritus (severe itching) is a common manifestation of
CKD caused by the accumulation of uremic toxins and phosphorus
in the skin. The client is more likely to have tachycardia and
hypertension due to fluid overload. Decreased, not increased,
urinary output is expected as the disease progresses.
A PN is assisting with the admission of a client who has active
tuberculosis. Which of the following types of transmission-based
precautions should the PN implement?
A. Contact
B. Droplet
C. Airborne
D. Protective
Answer: C
Rationale: Tuberculosis is transmitted via airborne droplet nuclei
that remain suspended in the air. Airborne precautions require a
negative pressure room and the use of an N95 respirator mask by
healthcare providers. Droplet precautions are for illnesses
transmitted by large respiratory droplets (e.g., influenza). Contact
precautions are for direct or indirect contact (e.g., MRSA).
, A PN is caring for a client who has heart failure and is receiving
furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the PN
monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?
A. Serum potassium
B. Serum sodium
C. Serum calcium
D. Serum magnesium
Answer: A
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes the excretion of
sodium, water, and potassium. Hypokalemia is a common and
dangerous adverse effect that can lead to dysrhythmias. Monitoring
serum potassium evaluates both the effectiveness and the safety of
the treatment.
A PN is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving
heparin therapy. Which of the following findings should the PN
report to the registered nurse (RN) immediately?
A. Platelet count 150,000/mm³
B. aPTT 50 seconds
C. Urine output 40 mL/hr
D. Ecchymosis on the forearm
Answer: D
Rationale: Ecchymosis (bruising) can indicate underlying bleeding,
which is a serious adverse effect of heparin therapy. While a platelet
count of 150,000 is normal, heparin-induced thrombocytopenia
(HIT) is a risk, but this count is safe. An aPTT of 50 seconds is within
the typical therapeutic range (1.5 to 2.5 times the control). Urine
output of 40 mL/hr is adequate.
Questions and Answers with rationales,
(A+ Guarantee)
2026\2027 update
This Exam contains:
Guarantee passing score
Questions and Ansẉers
format set of multiple-choice
Expert-Verified rationales
Verified ẉith trusted textbooks
,───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
A practical nurse (PN) is caring for a client who is 2 hours
postoperative following a cholecystectomy. Which of the following
findings should the PN identify as the priority to report to the
charge nurse?
A. The client reports pain at a 4 on a scale of 0 to 10.
B. The client's abdominal dressing has a small amount of
serosanguineous drainage.
C. The client's oxygen saturation is 90% on room air.
D. The client has not passed flatus since surgery.
Answer: C
Rationale: Using the ABC (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) approach,
an oxygen saturation of 90% indicates hypoxia and is the priority
finding. Postoperative clients are at risk for atelectasis and
pneumonia due to decreased lung expansion from anesthesia and
incisional pain. Pain, small amounts of serosanguineous drainage,
and lack of flatus are expected or non-urgent findings in the
immediate postoperative period.
A PN is reinforcing teaching with a client who has a new prescription
for warfarin. Which of the following statements by the client
indicates an understanding of the teaching?
A. "I will eat more foods high in vitamin K, like spinach."
B. "I will use a soft-bristled toothbrush."
C. "I will take an aspirin if I get a headache."
D. "I will expect my urine to turn orange."
Answer: B
Rationale: Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases the client's
risk for bleeding. Using a soft-bristled toothbrush decreases the risk
of bleeding gums. Vitamin K counteracts warfarin, so the intake
,should remain consistent, not increased. Aspirin also increases
bleeding risk and should be avoided unless prescribed. Orange
urine is not an expected effect of warfarin.
A PN is collecting data from a client who has chronic kidney disease
(CKD). Which of the following findings should the PN expect?
A. Bradycardia
B. Hypotension
C. Increased urinary output
D. Pruritus
Answer: D
Rationale: Pruritus (severe itching) is a common manifestation of
CKD caused by the accumulation of uremic toxins and phosphorus
in the skin. The client is more likely to have tachycardia and
hypertension due to fluid overload. Decreased, not increased,
urinary output is expected as the disease progresses.
A PN is assisting with the admission of a client who has active
tuberculosis. Which of the following types of transmission-based
precautions should the PN implement?
A. Contact
B. Droplet
C. Airborne
D. Protective
Answer: C
Rationale: Tuberculosis is transmitted via airborne droplet nuclei
that remain suspended in the air. Airborne precautions require a
negative pressure room and the use of an N95 respirator mask by
healthcare providers. Droplet precautions are for illnesses
transmitted by large respiratory droplets (e.g., influenza). Contact
precautions are for direct or indirect contact (e.g., MRSA).
, A PN is caring for a client who has heart failure and is receiving
furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the PN
monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?
A. Serum potassium
B. Serum sodium
C. Serum calcium
D. Serum magnesium
Answer: A
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes the excretion of
sodium, water, and potassium. Hypokalemia is a common and
dangerous adverse effect that can lead to dysrhythmias. Monitoring
serum potassium evaluates both the effectiveness and the safety of
the treatment.
A PN is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving
heparin therapy. Which of the following findings should the PN
report to the registered nurse (RN) immediately?
A. Platelet count 150,000/mm³
B. aPTT 50 seconds
C. Urine output 40 mL/hr
D. Ecchymosis on the forearm
Answer: D
Rationale: Ecchymosis (bruising) can indicate underlying bleeding,
which is a serious adverse effect of heparin therapy. While a platelet
count of 150,000 is normal, heparin-induced thrombocytopenia
(HIT) is a risk, but this count is safe. An aPTT of 50 seconds is within
the typical therapeutic range (1.5 to 2.5 times the control). Urine
output of 40 mL/hr is adequate.
