Questions and Verified Answers | Emergency Department RN
Competency Assessment | A+ Graded
1. What is the current recommended dose of intravenous or intraosseous epinephrine in adult patients
with cardiac arrest?
A) 10 mg every 10 minutes
B) 1 mg every 35 minutes
C) 1 mg every 7 minutes
D) 0.1 mg every 2 minutes
Answer: B) 1 mg every 35 minutes
Explanation: According to AHA guidelines, the recommended dose of epinephrine for adult cardiac
arrest is 1 mg IV/IO administered every 35 minutes during resuscitation efforts.
2. A patient is being treated with an anticoagulant for pulmonary embolism (PE). What patient
assessment finding indicates that a heparin infusion would be stopped IMMEDIATELY?
A) Elevated heart rate
B) Decreased level of consciousness
C) Increased respiratory rate
D) Mild bruising at IV site
Answer: B) Decreased level of consciousness
Explanation: A decreased level of consciousness in a patient on heparin may indicate intracranial
hemorrhage, a lifethreatening complication requiring immediate discontinuation of the heparin
infusion.
,3. A new nurse observes their preceptor giving the incorrect dosage of a medication to a patient.
Implementing the ethical principle veracity, what action would the new nurse take?
A) Ignore the error to avoid conflict
B) Inform the charge nurse about what happened and document it
C) Confront the preceptor privately
D) Administer the correct dose next time
Answer: B) Inform the charge nurse about what happened and document it
Explanation: Veracity is the ethical principle of truthfulness. The new nurse has a duty to report
medication errors to ensure patient safety and proper documentation.
4. What is the appropriate intervention for patients with Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS)?
A) Highflow nasal cannula
B) Mechanical ventilation
C) Nebulizer treatments
D) Chest physiotherapy
Answer: B) Mechanical ventilation
Explanation: ARDS typically requires mechanical ventilation with low tidal volume and PEEP to manage
severe hypoxemia and prevent further lung injury.
,5. What is a common assessment finding in a patient with a tension pneumothorax?
A) Hypotension
B) Distended neck veins
C) Decreased breath sounds bilaterally
D) Bradycardia
Answer: B) Distended neck veins
Explanation: Tension pneumothorax causes increased intrathoracic pressure, shifting the mediastinum
and obstructing venous return, leading to distended neck veins (jugular venous distention).
6. What type of medication is used in the emergency care setting to help manage the symptoms of
alcohol withdrawal?
A) Antipsychotics
B) Benzodiazepines
C) Antidepressants
D) Betablockers
Answer: B) Benzodiazepines
Explanation: Benzodiazepines are the firstline treatment for alcohol withdrawal syndrome to prevent
seizures and manage symptoms such as anxiety, tremors, and autonomic instability.
7. A patient who is 27 weeks pregnant presents with painless bright red vaginal bleeding. What
condition correlates with the presenting symptoms?
A) Placental abruption
, B) Placenta Previa
C) Preterm labor
D) Ectopic pregnancy
Answer: B) Placenta Previa
Explanation: Painless bright red vaginal bleeding in the second or third trimester is the classic
presentation of placenta previa, where the placenta partially or completely covers the cervical os.
8. A patient with a traumatic brain injury (TBI) is MOST likely to suffer from what condition?
A) Diabetes mellitus
B) Cerebral palsy
C) Diabetes Insipidus
D) Myxedema coma
Answer: C) Diabetes Insipidus
Explanation: Traumatic brain injury can damage the hypothalamus or pituitary gland, leading to diabetes
insipidus characterized by excessive urination and thirst due to inadequate antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
production.
9. A patient presents after sustaining a rollover motor vehicle accident. They are complaining of pain
around the midupper back. On your initial triage assessment, you find that patient has preserved motor
function below L5 but is suffering from a loss of sensory function. The assessment findings are
consistent with:
A) Posterior cord syndrome
B) Central cord syndrome