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NUR 505 Exam 3 Advanced Pathophysiology | Latest Update 2026/2027 | 200 Questions and Verified Answers | Complete Q&A Guide | A+ Graded

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This comprehensive NUR 505 Exam 3 study guide provides 200 practice questions and verified answers with detailed rationales for graduate-level nursing students. Covers advanced pathophysiology including endocrine, immune, and gastrointestinal disorders, advanced physical assessment of cardiovascular, respiratory, and neurological systems, pharmacology, clinical decision-making, and evidence-based interventions. Fully updated for 2026/2027. Perfect for MSN and NP students seeking exam success.

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NUR 505 Exam 3 Advanced Pathophysiology | Latest Update
2026/2027 | 200 Questions and Verified Answers | Complete
Q&A Guide | A+ Graded

1. The nurse working in an outpatient nephrology clinic knows that which of the following are primary
functions of the kidneys? (Select all that apply.)

A. Production of clotting factors

B. Homeostasis

C. Excretion of metabolic wastes

D. Regulation of acidbase balance

E. Metabolism of fats



Answer: B, C, D



Explanation: The kidneys maintain homeostasis, excrete metabolic wastes, and regulate acidbase
balance. The kidneys do not metabolize fats. Production of clotting factors is a primary function of the
liver. The kidneys maintain blood pressure using the RAAS and also produce erythropoietin to stimulate
RBC production.




2. In caring for a patient diagnosed with acute kidney injury, the nephrology nurse knows that which of
the following tests are specific for renal function? (Select all that apply.)

A. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST)

B. Blood urea nitrogen

C. Creatinine

D. Glomerular filtration rate

E. White blood cell count



Answer: B, C, D

,Explanation: BUN, creatinine, and GFR are specific markers of renal function. AST is related to liver
function. White blood cell count is a marker of infection or inflammation, not specific to renal function.




3. In caring for a patient with acute kidney injury, the nurse knows that the patient's renal function has
returned to normal range when the patient's GFR measures:

A. 3040 mL/min

B. 4050 mL/min

C. 7090 mL/min

D. 90120 mL/min



Answer: D. 90120 mL/min



Explanation: Normal GFR is 90120 mL/min. Normal creatinine is 0.61.1 for females and 0.61.2 for males.
Normal BUN is 1020 mg/dL.




4. The nurse working in a geriatric living facility understands that as patients age, which change in
glomerular filtration rate is expected?

A. Increased GFR

B. Decreased GFR

C. Same GFR

D. No GFR



Answer: B. Decreased GFR

,Explanation: Aging is associated with a progressive decline in GFR due to decreased renal blood flow,
loss of nephrons, and thickening of the glomerular basement membrane.




5. A 25yearold female is diagnosed with urinary tract obstruction. While planning care, the nurse
realizes that the patient is expected to have hydronephrosis and a decreased glomerular filtration rate
caused by:

A. Decreased renal blood flow

B. Decreased peritubular capillary pressure

C. Dilation of renal pelvis and calyces proximal to blockage

D. Stimulation of antidiuretic hormone



Answer: C. Dilation of renal pelvis and calyces proximal to blockage



Explanation: Hydronephrosis is the dilation/enlargement of the renal pelvis and calyces caused by
obstruction of urinary flow. Hydroureter is dilation of the ureter. Ureterohydronephrosis involves
dilation of both the ureter and renal pelvis/calyces.




6. A 55yearold male presents reporting urinary retention. Tests reveal that he has a lower urinary tract
obstruction. Which of the following is of most concern to the nurse?

A. Vesicoureteral reflux and pyelonephritis

B. Formation of renal calculi

C. Glomerulonephritis

D. Increased bladder compliance



Answer: B. Formation of renal calculi

, Explanation: Urinary stasis occurs with urinary tract obstruction and can lead to the formation of renal
calculi (stones). Urinary stasis promotes crystal aggregation and stone formation.




7. A 45yearold female presents with unilateral vision loss, fatigue, and worsening symptoms with heat
exposure. MRI shows periventricular white matter lesions. Which pathological process is most likely?

A. Prion protein accumulation

B. Amyloid plaque deposition

C. Autoimmune demyelination

D. Dopaminergic neuron degeneration



Answer: C. Autoimmune demyelination



Explanation: This presentation is classic for multiple sclerosis: autoimmune demyelination with
characteristic MRI findings and Uhthoff's phenomenon (worsening with heat).




8. A patient with persistent hyperglycemia has detectable antiGAD65 antibodies and requires insulin
therapy. Which pathophysiological mechanism explains this condition?

A. Insulin receptor downregulation

B. Amylin deficiency

C. Autoimmune βcell destruction

D. Hepatic gluconeogenesis excess



Answer: C. Autoimmune βcell destruction



Explanation: The presence of antiGAD65 antibodies confirms type 1 diabetes mellitus, an autoimmune
condition characterized by destruction of pancreatic βcells, leading to absolute insulin deficiency.

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