BSN HESI 315 Pharmacology Exam verified with correct answers and
rationales 2026/2027 instant pdf A+ Graded
1. A client taking lisinopril reports swelling of the lips and tongue. What is the nurse's priority
action?
A. Administer the next dose with food
B. Hold the medication and notify the provider immediately
C. Encourage increased oral fluids
D. Place the client in a supine position
Correct answer: B.
Rationale: Facial, lip, and tongue swelling may indicate life-threatening angioedema associated
with ACE inhibitors.
2. Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor for in a client taking furosemide?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Bradycardia
D. Constipation
Correct answer: B.
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause significant potassium loss.
3. A client taking digoxin has an apical pulse of 52/min. What should the nurse do?
A. Administer the medication
B. Hold the dose and notify the provider
C. Give an additional dose
D. Recheck the pulse after exercise
Correct answer: B.
Rationale: Digoxin is generally withheld when the adult apical pulse is below 60/min, and
bradycardia may indicate toxicity.
4. Which finding suggests digoxin toxicity?
A. Increased appetite
B. Yellow or blurred vision
C. Increased urine output
D. Hypertension
Correct answer: B.
Rationale: Visual disturbances, nausea, vomiting, anorexia, and dysrhythmias are classic signs
of digoxin toxicity.
5. A client taking warfarin should be taught to report which finding immediately?
A. Mild hunger
,B. Black, tarry stools
C. Increased thirst
D. Occasional sneezing
Correct answer: B.
Rationale: Black, tarry stools may indicate gastrointestinal bleeding.
6. Which laboratory test is used to monitor warfarin therapy?
A. aPTT
B. INR
C. Serum sodium
D. Hemoglobin A1c
Correct answer: B.
Rationale: Warfarin therapy is monitored using PT/INR.
7. The antidote for excessive warfarin anticoagulation is:
A. Protamine sulfate
B. Vitamin K
C. Naloxone
D. Acetylcysteine
Correct answer: B.
Rationale: Vitamin K reverses the anticoagulant effect of warfarin.
8. Which medication reverses the effects of heparin?
A. Vitamin K
B. Protamine sulfate
C. Flumazenil
D. Atropine
Correct answer: B.
Rationale: Protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin overdose.
9. A client taking atorvastatin should report:
A. Muscle pain and weakness
B. Mild thirst
C. Increased appetite
D. Sneezing
Correct answer: A.
Rationale: Muscle pain or weakness may indicate myopathy or rhabdomyolysis.
10. Which instruction is appropriate for a client taking nitroglycerin sublingually?
A. Swallow the tablet whole
B. Place the tablet under the tongue
, C. Take it only after meals
D. Store it in the bathroom
Correct answer: B.
Rationale: Sublingual nitroglycerin is placed under the tongue for rapid absorption.
11. The nurse should question a prescription for nitroglycerin in a client who recently took:
A. Acetaminophen
B. Sildenafil
C. Amoxicillin
D. Metformin
Correct answer: B.
Rationale: Nitrates combined with PDE-5 inhibitors can cause severe, potentially fatal
hypotension.
12. Which adverse effect is commonly associated with beta blockers?
A. Tachycardia
B. Bradycardia
C. Hyperactivity
D. Severe diarrhea
Correct answer: B.
Rationale: Beta blockers decrease heart rate and contractility.
13. A client taking propranolol should be taught to:
A. Stop the medication abruptly
B. Monitor pulse and blood pressure
C. Double the dose if one is missed
D. Avoid all carbohydrates
Correct answer: B.
Rationale: Beta blockers can cause bradycardia and hypotension.
14. Which medication is a calcium channel blocker?
A. Amlodipine
B. Furosemide
C. Digoxin
D. Warfarin
Correct answer: A.
Rationale: Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker used primarily for hypertension and angina.
15. A client taking amlodipine develops swollen ankles. The nurse recognizes this as:
A. A common adverse effect
B. Evidence of hypoglycemia
rationales 2026/2027 instant pdf A+ Graded
1. A client taking lisinopril reports swelling of the lips and tongue. What is the nurse's priority
action?
A. Administer the next dose with food
B. Hold the medication and notify the provider immediately
C. Encourage increased oral fluids
D. Place the client in a supine position
Correct answer: B.
Rationale: Facial, lip, and tongue swelling may indicate life-threatening angioedema associated
with ACE inhibitors.
2. Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor for in a client taking furosemide?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Bradycardia
D. Constipation
Correct answer: B.
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause significant potassium loss.
3. A client taking digoxin has an apical pulse of 52/min. What should the nurse do?
A. Administer the medication
B. Hold the dose and notify the provider
C. Give an additional dose
D. Recheck the pulse after exercise
Correct answer: B.
Rationale: Digoxin is generally withheld when the adult apical pulse is below 60/min, and
bradycardia may indicate toxicity.
4. Which finding suggests digoxin toxicity?
A. Increased appetite
B. Yellow or blurred vision
C. Increased urine output
D. Hypertension
Correct answer: B.
Rationale: Visual disturbances, nausea, vomiting, anorexia, and dysrhythmias are classic signs
of digoxin toxicity.
5. A client taking warfarin should be taught to report which finding immediately?
A. Mild hunger
,B. Black, tarry stools
C. Increased thirst
D. Occasional sneezing
Correct answer: B.
Rationale: Black, tarry stools may indicate gastrointestinal bleeding.
6. Which laboratory test is used to monitor warfarin therapy?
A. aPTT
B. INR
C. Serum sodium
D. Hemoglobin A1c
Correct answer: B.
Rationale: Warfarin therapy is monitored using PT/INR.
7. The antidote for excessive warfarin anticoagulation is:
A. Protamine sulfate
B. Vitamin K
C. Naloxone
D. Acetylcysteine
Correct answer: B.
Rationale: Vitamin K reverses the anticoagulant effect of warfarin.
8. Which medication reverses the effects of heparin?
A. Vitamin K
B. Protamine sulfate
C. Flumazenil
D. Atropine
Correct answer: B.
Rationale: Protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin overdose.
9. A client taking atorvastatin should report:
A. Muscle pain and weakness
B. Mild thirst
C. Increased appetite
D. Sneezing
Correct answer: A.
Rationale: Muscle pain or weakness may indicate myopathy or rhabdomyolysis.
10. Which instruction is appropriate for a client taking nitroglycerin sublingually?
A. Swallow the tablet whole
B. Place the tablet under the tongue
, C. Take it only after meals
D. Store it in the bathroom
Correct answer: B.
Rationale: Sublingual nitroglycerin is placed under the tongue for rapid absorption.
11. The nurse should question a prescription for nitroglycerin in a client who recently took:
A. Acetaminophen
B. Sildenafil
C. Amoxicillin
D. Metformin
Correct answer: B.
Rationale: Nitrates combined with PDE-5 inhibitors can cause severe, potentially fatal
hypotension.
12. Which adverse effect is commonly associated with beta blockers?
A. Tachycardia
B. Bradycardia
C. Hyperactivity
D. Severe diarrhea
Correct answer: B.
Rationale: Beta blockers decrease heart rate and contractility.
13. A client taking propranolol should be taught to:
A. Stop the medication abruptly
B. Monitor pulse and blood pressure
C. Double the dose if one is missed
D. Avoid all carbohydrates
Correct answer: B.
Rationale: Beta blockers can cause bradycardia and hypotension.
14. Which medication is a calcium channel blocker?
A. Amlodipine
B. Furosemide
C. Digoxin
D. Warfarin
Correct answer: A.
Rationale: Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker used primarily for hypertension and angina.
15. A client taking amlodipine develops swollen ankles. The nurse recognizes this as:
A. A common adverse effect
B. Evidence of hypoglycemia
