COMSAE PHASE 2 FORM 113 PRACTICE EXAM 200 HIGH-YIELD
QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED EXPLANATIONS LATEST UPDATE
THIS YEAR INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF
Table of Contents:
Section 1: Cardiology (Questions 1–25)
Section 2: Pulmonology (Questions 26–50)
Section 3: Gastroenterology (Questions 51–70)
Section 4: Neurology (Questions 71–85)
Section 5: Obstetrics & Gynecology (Questions 86–100)
Section 6: Infectious Disease (Questions 101–115)
Section 7: Hematology & Oncology (Questions 116–130)
Section 8: Nephrology (Questions 131–140)
Section 9: Psychiatry (Questions 141–150)
Section 10: Musculoskeletal (Questions 151–160)
Section 11: Endocrine (Questions 161–175)
Section 12: Dermatology (Questions 176–185)
Section 13: Emergency Medicine (Questions 186–200)
Includes: Answer Key with Detailed Explanations for Every Question
Covers: COMSAE Phase 2 Form 113 (BSA 113i), COMLEX-USA Level 2-CE Blueprint,
Clinical Presentations, and Core Medical Disciplines
EXAM OVERVIEW
Feature Details
Form COMSAE Phase 2 Form 113 (BSA 113i)
Format Secure browser, includes video questions requiring headphones
, Question 160 items (this practice exam contains 200 questions for expanded
Count review)
Time Allowed 4 hours, divided into 4 sections of 40 questions each
Question Type Single-best-answer, multiple-choice with clinical vignettes
Includes Images, visual exhibits, and video attachments
Section 1: Cardiology (Questions 1-25)
1. A 58-year-old man with hypertension and type 2 diabetes presents with acute
substernal chest pain radiating to the left arm. ECG shows ST elevations in leads V1-
V4. Which is the most appropriate next step?
A) Aspirin and immediate PCI
B) Aspirin and IV tPA
C) Aspirin and clopidogrel with medical management
D) Aspirin and urgent CABG
Answer: A. Aspirin and immediate PCI
Explanation: STEMI (V1-V4 = anteroseptal) requires immediate reperfusion. PCI is
preferred if available within 120 minutes of first medical contact .
2. A 54-year-old man with heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (EF 26%)
presents with worsening dyspnea and orthopnea. Medications: carvedilol, lisinopril,
furosemide, spironolactone. Labs: K 6.5 mEq/L, creatinine 2.8 mg/dL (baseline 1.2).
Which medication should be discontinued first?
A) Carvedilol
,B) Lisinopril
C) Furosemide
D) Spironolactone
Answer: D. Spironolactone
Explanation: Life-threatening hyperkalemia (K 6.5) on spironolactone plus ACE inhibitor
requires holding spironolactone first. Discontinue both if hyperkalemia persists .
3. A patient presents with heart palpitations, chest pressure, and lightheadedness.
ECG shows a heart rate of 175 bpm with narrow QRS complexes and no visible P
waves. What is the most likely rhythm?
A) Atrial fibrillation
B) Atrial flutter
C) AV nodal reentrant tachycardia
D) Ventricular tachycardia
Answer: A. Atrial fibrillation
Explanation: Narrow complex tachycardia with irregularly irregular rhythm and no P
waves is consistent with atrial fibrillation. First-line management includes rate or rhythm
control based on hemodynamic stability .
4. A patient with chronic stable angina is prescribed nitroglycerin. The patient reports
headaches after taking the medication. What is the most appropriate nursing
response?
A) Discontinue the medication immediately
B) This is a common side effect and may diminish with continued use
, C) Increase the dose to reduce side effects
D) Take the medication with food
Answer: B. This is a common side effect and may diminish with continued use
Explanation: Headaches are a common side effect of nitroglycerin due to vasodilation.
Patients should be reassured that this typically diminishes with continued use .
5. A 45-year-old woman presents with sudden onset of severe headache, nausea,
vomiting, and photophobia. CT head shows subarachnoid hemorrhage. What is the
most appropriate next step?
A) Administer aspirin
B) Neurosurgical consultation
C) Lumbar puncture
D) Discharge home
Answer: B. Neurosurgical consultation
Explanation: Subarachnoid hemorrhage is a neurosurgical emergency requiring
immediate consultation. Aspirin is contraindicated; lumbar puncture is not needed if CT
confirms SAH .
6. A patient with a history of atrial fibrillation is on warfarin. INR is 6.0. Which of the
following is the most appropriate action?
A) Increase the warfarin dose
B) Decrease the warfarin dose
C) Hold warfarin and administer vitamin K if bleeding is present
D) Continue the current dose
QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED EXPLANATIONS LATEST UPDATE
THIS YEAR INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF
Table of Contents:
Section 1: Cardiology (Questions 1–25)
Section 2: Pulmonology (Questions 26–50)
Section 3: Gastroenterology (Questions 51–70)
Section 4: Neurology (Questions 71–85)
Section 5: Obstetrics & Gynecology (Questions 86–100)
Section 6: Infectious Disease (Questions 101–115)
Section 7: Hematology & Oncology (Questions 116–130)
Section 8: Nephrology (Questions 131–140)
Section 9: Psychiatry (Questions 141–150)
Section 10: Musculoskeletal (Questions 151–160)
Section 11: Endocrine (Questions 161–175)
Section 12: Dermatology (Questions 176–185)
Section 13: Emergency Medicine (Questions 186–200)
Includes: Answer Key with Detailed Explanations for Every Question
Covers: COMSAE Phase 2 Form 113 (BSA 113i), COMLEX-USA Level 2-CE Blueprint,
Clinical Presentations, and Core Medical Disciplines
EXAM OVERVIEW
Feature Details
Form COMSAE Phase 2 Form 113 (BSA 113i)
Format Secure browser, includes video questions requiring headphones
, Question 160 items (this practice exam contains 200 questions for expanded
Count review)
Time Allowed 4 hours, divided into 4 sections of 40 questions each
Question Type Single-best-answer, multiple-choice with clinical vignettes
Includes Images, visual exhibits, and video attachments
Section 1: Cardiology (Questions 1-25)
1. A 58-year-old man with hypertension and type 2 diabetes presents with acute
substernal chest pain radiating to the left arm. ECG shows ST elevations in leads V1-
V4. Which is the most appropriate next step?
A) Aspirin and immediate PCI
B) Aspirin and IV tPA
C) Aspirin and clopidogrel with medical management
D) Aspirin and urgent CABG
Answer: A. Aspirin and immediate PCI
Explanation: STEMI (V1-V4 = anteroseptal) requires immediate reperfusion. PCI is
preferred if available within 120 minutes of first medical contact .
2. A 54-year-old man with heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (EF 26%)
presents with worsening dyspnea and orthopnea. Medications: carvedilol, lisinopril,
furosemide, spironolactone. Labs: K 6.5 mEq/L, creatinine 2.8 mg/dL (baseline 1.2).
Which medication should be discontinued first?
A) Carvedilol
,B) Lisinopril
C) Furosemide
D) Spironolactone
Answer: D. Spironolactone
Explanation: Life-threatening hyperkalemia (K 6.5) on spironolactone plus ACE inhibitor
requires holding spironolactone first. Discontinue both if hyperkalemia persists .
3. A patient presents with heart palpitations, chest pressure, and lightheadedness.
ECG shows a heart rate of 175 bpm with narrow QRS complexes and no visible P
waves. What is the most likely rhythm?
A) Atrial fibrillation
B) Atrial flutter
C) AV nodal reentrant tachycardia
D) Ventricular tachycardia
Answer: A. Atrial fibrillation
Explanation: Narrow complex tachycardia with irregularly irregular rhythm and no P
waves is consistent with atrial fibrillation. First-line management includes rate or rhythm
control based on hemodynamic stability .
4. A patient with chronic stable angina is prescribed nitroglycerin. The patient reports
headaches after taking the medication. What is the most appropriate nursing
response?
A) Discontinue the medication immediately
B) This is a common side effect and may diminish with continued use
, C) Increase the dose to reduce side effects
D) Take the medication with food
Answer: B. This is a common side effect and may diminish with continued use
Explanation: Headaches are a common side effect of nitroglycerin due to vasodilation.
Patients should be reassured that this typically diminishes with continued use .
5. A 45-year-old woman presents with sudden onset of severe headache, nausea,
vomiting, and photophobia. CT head shows subarachnoid hemorrhage. What is the
most appropriate next step?
A) Administer aspirin
B) Neurosurgical consultation
C) Lumbar puncture
D) Discharge home
Answer: B. Neurosurgical consultation
Explanation: Subarachnoid hemorrhage is a neurosurgical emergency requiring
immediate consultation. Aspirin is contraindicated; lumbar puncture is not needed if CT
confirms SAH .
6. A patient with a history of atrial fibrillation is on warfarin. INR is 6.0. Which of the
following is the most appropriate action?
A) Increase the warfarin dose
B) Decrease the warfarin dose
C) Hold warfarin and administer vitamin K if bleeding is present
D) Continue the current dose
