RN ATI Nutrition Proctored Exam (2025/2026) –
Questions & Answers with Rationales | 100%
Guarantee Pass COMPREHENSIVE NUTRITION
EXAMINATION Practice Questions with Answers
and Detailed Rationales
1. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is currently experiencing an
exacerbation of Crohn's disease. Which of the following statements indicates
an understanding of dietary practices during acute episodes?
A) "I will follow a high-protein diet"
B) "I will increase my fat intake"
C) "I will take a fiber supplement daily"
D) "I will consume three large meals throughout the day"
Rationale: Clients who have Crohn's disease should follow a high-calorie, high-
protein diet to prevent malnutrition and attain the required calories to promote
healing. During acute exacerbations, a low-fiber, low-fat diet with small, frequent
meals is recommended.
2. A nurse is providing dietary teaching about reducing the risk of infection to
a client who has cancer and is receiving chemotherapy. Which of the following
statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
A) "I will thaw my food at room temperature"
B) "I will use leftovers within 24 hours"
C) "I should use home-canned goods within 2 years of canning"
D) "I should heat my food to at least 120 degrees Fahrenheit"
Rationale: Clients receiving chemotherapy are immunocompromised and at risk
for foodborne illness. Leftovers should be used within 24 hours to prevent bacterial
growth. Food should be heated to at least 165°F (not 120°F). Thawing should
occur in the refrigerator, not at room temperature.
,3. A nurse is caring for a client who has been receiving total parenteral
nutrition (TPN) and has a prescription to discontinue the TPN. Which of the
following findings indicates to the nurse that the client is experiencing a
complication from discontinuing the TPN?
A) Confusion
B) Hot and dry skin
C) Nausea and vomiting
D) Stomatitis
Rationale: Clients receiving total parenteral nutrition are at risk for developing
hypoglycemia when TPN is discontinued abruptly. Manifestations of
hypoglycemia include confusion, altered behavior, shakiness, and diaphoresis. Hot
and dry skin indicates hyperglycemia. Nausea/vomiting and stomatitis are not
directly related to TPN discontinuation.
4. A nurse is teaching a client who has a prescription for ferrous sulfate.
Which of the following statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
A) "I can take this medication with juice"
B) "I will take this medication on an empty stomach only"
C) "I will take this medication with milk"
D) "I will take this medication with my coffee"
Rationale: Ferrous sulfate should be taken between meals for optimal absorption.
The client can take this medication with juice (preferably orange juice) to enhance
absorption. Milk, coffee, and tea interfere with iron absorption. If gastric upset
occurs, the medication can be taken with meals.
5. A nurse is observing a client during mealtime who has a stroke with facial
weakness. Which of the following findings places the client at risk for
aspiration?
A) Client places food on the right side of their mouth when eating
B) Client avoids drinking liquids to help swallow food that is in their mouth
C) Client tucks their chin down and tilts their head forward when eating
D) Client is positioned at a 30-degree angle when eating
,Rationale: Positioning a client at a 30-degree angle increases the client's risk for
aspiration. The nurse should position the client at 90 degrees (upright) to prevent
aspiration of food or liquids. Chin tucking and head tilting are safe swallowing
techniques that protect the airway.
6. A client with peptic ulcer disease is prescribed a proton pump inhibitor.
Which dietary instruction should the nurse include?
A) Avoid foods that cause gastric irritation (spicy, acidic foods)
B) Increase caffeine intake
C) Eat large meals to dilute gastric acid
D) Drink milk with meals
Rationale: Clients with peptic ulcer disease should avoid foods that cause gastric
irritation, including spicy, acidic, and fried foods. Caffeine, alcohol, and smoking
should also be avoided. Small, frequent meals are recommended.
7. A client with celiac disease should avoid which of the following foods?
A) Wheat, barley, and rye
B) Rice and corn
C) Potatoes and beans
D) Fruits and vegetables
Rationale: Celiac disease requires a gluten-free diet. Clients must avoid wheat,
barley, rye, and their derivatives. Rice, corn, potatoes, and fruits/vegetables are
gluten-free and safe.
8. A client with diverticulitis is experiencing an acute flare. Which dietary
instruction is most appropriate?
A) High-fiber diet
B) Clear liquid diet
C) High-fat diet
D) Regular diet
, Rationale: During an acute flare of diverticulitis, the client should follow a clear
liquid diet to allow bowel rest. A high-fiber diet is recommended for prevention
and during remission.
9. A client with cirrhosis and ascites should follow which dietary
modification?
A) Low-sodium diet
B) High-sodium diet
C) High-protein diet
D) Low-carbohydrate diet
Rationale: Clients with cirrhosis and ascites should follow a low-sodium diet to
reduce fluid retention. Sodium restriction helps manage ascites and peripheral
edema.
10. A client with hepatic encephalopathy should follow which dietary
modification?
A) Low-protein diet
B) High-protein diet
C) High-fat diet
D) Low-carbohydrate diet
Rationale: Hepatic encephalopathy is caused by elevated ammonia levels. A low-
protein diet reduces ammonia production and helps manage symptoms. Protein
intake is carefully controlled.
11. A client with dumping syndrome after gastric surgery should be taught to:
A) Eat small, frequent meals and avoid liquids with meals
B) Eat large, infrequent meals
C) Drink fluids with meals
D) Avoid all carbohydrates
Questions & Answers with Rationales | 100%
Guarantee Pass COMPREHENSIVE NUTRITION
EXAMINATION Practice Questions with Answers
and Detailed Rationales
1. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is currently experiencing an
exacerbation of Crohn's disease. Which of the following statements indicates
an understanding of dietary practices during acute episodes?
A) "I will follow a high-protein diet"
B) "I will increase my fat intake"
C) "I will take a fiber supplement daily"
D) "I will consume three large meals throughout the day"
Rationale: Clients who have Crohn's disease should follow a high-calorie, high-
protein diet to prevent malnutrition and attain the required calories to promote
healing. During acute exacerbations, a low-fiber, low-fat diet with small, frequent
meals is recommended.
2. A nurse is providing dietary teaching about reducing the risk of infection to
a client who has cancer and is receiving chemotherapy. Which of the following
statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
A) "I will thaw my food at room temperature"
B) "I will use leftovers within 24 hours"
C) "I should use home-canned goods within 2 years of canning"
D) "I should heat my food to at least 120 degrees Fahrenheit"
Rationale: Clients receiving chemotherapy are immunocompromised and at risk
for foodborne illness. Leftovers should be used within 24 hours to prevent bacterial
growth. Food should be heated to at least 165°F (not 120°F). Thawing should
occur in the refrigerator, not at room temperature.
,3. A nurse is caring for a client who has been receiving total parenteral
nutrition (TPN) and has a prescription to discontinue the TPN. Which of the
following findings indicates to the nurse that the client is experiencing a
complication from discontinuing the TPN?
A) Confusion
B) Hot and dry skin
C) Nausea and vomiting
D) Stomatitis
Rationale: Clients receiving total parenteral nutrition are at risk for developing
hypoglycemia when TPN is discontinued abruptly. Manifestations of
hypoglycemia include confusion, altered behavior, shakiness, and diaphoresis. Hot
and dry skin indicates hyperglycemia. Nausea/vomiting and stomatitis are not
directly related to TPN discontinuation.
4. A nurse is teaching a client who has a prescription for ferrous sulfate.
Which of the following statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
A) "I can take this medication with juice"
B) "I will take this medication on an empty stomach only"
C) "I will take this medication with milk"
D) "I will take this medication with my coffee"
Rationale: Ferrous sulfate should be taken between meals for optimal absorption.
The client can take this medication with juice (preferably orange juice) to enhance
absorption. Milk, coffee, and tea interfere with iron absorption. If gastric upset
occurs, the medication can be taken with meals.
5. A nurse is observing a client during mealtime who has a stroke with facial
weakness. Which of the following findings places the client at risk for
aspiration?
A) Client places food on the right side of their mouth when eating
B) Client avoids drinking liquids to help swallow food that is in their mouth
C) Client tucks their chin down and tilts their head forward when eating
D) Client is positioned at a 30-degree angle when eating
,Rationale: Positioning a client at a 30-degree angle increases the client's risk for
aspiration. The nurse should position the client at 90 degrees (upright) to prevent
aspiration of food or liquids. Chin tucking and head tilting are safe swallowing
techniques that protect the airway.
6. A client with peptic ulcer disease is prescribed a proton pump inhibitor.
Which dietary instruction should the nurse include?
A) Avoid foods that cause gastric irritation (spicy, acidic foods)
B) Increase caffeine intake
C) Eat large meals to dilute gastric acid
D) Drink milk with meals
Rationale: Clients with peptic ulcer disease should avoid foods that cause gastric
irritation, including spicy, acidic, and fried foods. Caffeine, alcohol, and smoking
should also be avoided. Small, frequent meals are recommended.
7. A client with celiac disease should avoid which of the following foods?
A) Wheat, barley, and rye
B) Rice and corn
C) Potatoes and beans
D) Fruits and vegetables
Rationale: Celiac disease requires a gluten-free diet. Clients must avoid wheat,
barley, rye, and their derivatives. Rice, corn, potatoes, and fruits/vegetables are
gluten-free and safe.
8. A client with diverticulitis is experiencing an acute flare. Which dietary
instruction is most appropriate?
A) High-fiber diet
B) Clear liquid diet
C) High-fat diet
D) Regular diet
, Rationale: During an acute flare of diverticulitis, the client should follow a clear
liquid diet to allow bowel rest. A high-fiber diet is recommended for prevention
and during remission.
9. A client with cirrhosis and ascites should follow which dietary
modification?
A) Low-sodium diet
B) High-sodium diet
C) High-protein diet
D) Low-carbohydrate diet
Rationale: Clients with cirrhosis and ascites should follow a low-sodium diet to
reduce fluid retention. Sodium restriction helps manage ascites and peripheral
edema.
10. A client with hepatic encephalopathy should follow which dietary
modification?
A) Low-protein diet
B) High-protein diet
C) High-fat diet
D) Low-carbohydrate diet
Rationale: Hepatic encephalopathy is caused by elevated ammonia levels. A low-
protein diet reduces ammonia production and helps manage symptoms. Protein
intake is carefully controlled.
11. A client with dumping syndrome after gastric surgery should be taught to:
A) Eat small, frequent meals and avoid liquids with meals
B) Eat large, infrequent meals
C) Drink fluids with meals
D) Avoid all carbohydrates
