West Coast EMT Block Exam 2 Version B
Questions and Answers 2026/2027 |
Complete EMT Certification Exam Prep |
Airway, Shock, Pharmacology & Patient
Assessment Review | A+ Verified
QUESTION 1
A 60-year-old man is found to be unresponsive, pulseless, and apneic. You should:
A. Start CPR and transport immediately.
B. Begin CPR until an AED is available.
C. Withhold CPR until he is defibrillated.
D. Determine if he has a valid living will.
Answer: B. Begin CPR until an AED is available.
Rationale: In an unresponsive, pulseless, apneic patient, CPR should be initiated
immediately. The American Heart Association guidelines prioritize early CPR and early
defibrillation. Begin CPR and continue until an AED arrives .
QUESTION 2
Basic life support (BLS) is defined as:
A. Basic lifesaving treatment performed by bystanders while EMS providers are en route
to the scene.
B. Noninvasive emergency care used to treat conditions such as airway obstruction,
respiratory arrest, and cardiac arrest.
C. Invasive emergency medical interventions such as intravenous therapy and manual
defibrillation.
D. Any form of emergency medical treatment performed by advanced EMTs,
paramedics, and physicians.
,Answer: B. Noninvasive emergency care used to treat conditions such as airway
obstruction, respiratory arrest, and cardiac arrest.
Rationale: BLS refers to noninvasive emergency care that focuses on airway management,
breathing, and circulation support. It does not include invasive procedures like IV therapy
or advanced airway management .
QUESTION 3
Between each chest compression, you should:
A. Check for a pulse.
B. Allow full chest recoil.
C. Administer a breath.
D. Remove your hands from the chest.
Answer: B. Allow full chest recoil.
Rationale: Allowing full chest recoil between compressions is essential for adequate venous
return and cardiac filling. Incomplete recoil reduces the effectiveness of CPR .
QUESTION 4
Complications associated with chest compressions include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. A fractured sternum.
B. Gastric distention.
C. Rib fractures.
D. Liver laceration.
Answer: B. Gastric distention.
Rationale: Gastric distention is a complication of excessive ventilation, not chest
compressions. Chest compressions can cause rib fractures, sternal fractures, and liver
lacerations .
QUESTION 5
CPR is in progress on a pregnant woman. Shortly after manually displacing her uterus to
,the left, return of spontaneous circulation occurs. Which of the following would MOST
likely explain this?
A. Displacement of her uterus caused blood to flow backward, which increased blood
flow to her heart.
B. Increased blood flow to her heart caused her ventricles to stop fibrillating.
C. Displacement of her uterus allowed her lungs to expand more fully.
D. Pressure was relieved from her aorta and vena cava, which improved chest
compression effectiveness.
Answer: D. Pressure was relieved from her aorta and vena cava, which improved
chest compression effectiveness.
Rationale: In a pregnant patient, the gravid uterus can compress the aorta and inferior
vena cava when the patient is supine. Left uterine displacement relieves this pressure,
improving venous return and cardiac output during CPR .
QUESTION 6
CPR retraining is the MOST effective when it:
A. Occurs every 24 months.
B. Is delivered by computer.
C. Involves hands-on practice.
D. Is self-paced and brief.
Answer: C. Involves hands-on practice.
Rationale: Hands-on practice is the most effective method for CPR skill retention. Active
participation and psychomotor practice reinforce proper technique better than passive
learning methods .
QUESTION 7
CPR should be initiated when:
A. Rigor mortis is obvious.
B. Signs of putrefaction are present.
, C. The carotid pulse is very weak.
D. A valid living will is unavailable.
Answer: D. A valid living will is unavailable.
Rationale: CPR should be initiated when there is no pulse and no breathing, unless there
are clear signs of irreversible death (rigor mortis, dependent lividity, or obvious fatal injury)
or a valid Do Not Resuscitate order .
QUESTION 8
CPR will NOT be effective if the patient is:
A. Supine.
B. Prone.
C. Horizontal.
D. On a firm surface.
Answer: B. Prone.
Rationale: CPR cannot be effectively performed on a patient in the prone position. The
patient must be supine on a firm, flat surface to allow for adequate chest compressions .
QUESTION 9
Gastric distention will MOST likely occur:
A. When you deliver minimal tidal volume.
B. If you ventilate a patient too quickly.
C. In patients who are intubated.
D. When the airway is completely obstructed.
Answer: B. If you ventilate a patient too quickly.
Rationale: Gastric distention occurs when air is forced into the stomach during
ventilations. This is more likely with excessive ventilation rate or volume, or when the
airway is not properly opened .
Questions and Answers 2026/2027 |
Complete EMT Certification Exam Prep |
Airway, Shock, Pharmacology & Patient
Assessment Review | A+ Verified
QUESTION 1
A 60-year-old man is found to be unresponsive, pulseless, and apneic. You should:
A. Start CPR and transport immediately.
B. Begin CPR until an AED is available.
C. Withhold CPR until he is defibrillated.
D. Determine if he has a valid living will.
Answer: B. Begin CPR until an AED is available.
Rationale: In an unresponsive, pulseless, apneic patient, CPR should be initiated
immediately. The American Heart Association guidelines prioritize early CPR and early
defibrillation. Begin CPR and continue until an AED arrives .
QUESTION 2
Basic life support (BLS) is defined as:
A. Basic lifesaving treatment performed by bystanders while EMS providers are en route
to the scene.
B. Noninvasive emergency care used to treat conditions such as airway obstruction,
respiratory arrest, and cardiac arrest.
C. Invasive emergency medical interventions such as intravenous therapy and manual
defibrillation.
D. Any form of emergency medical treatment performed by advanced EMTs,
paramedics, and physicians.
,Answer: B. Noninvasive emergency care used to treat conditions such as airway
obstruction, respiratory arrest, and cardiac arrest.
Rationale: BLS refers to noninvasive emergency care that focuses on airway management,
breathing, and circulation support. It does not include invasive procedures like IV therapy
or advanced airway management .
QUESTION 3
Between each chest compression, you should:
A. Check for a pulse.
B. Allow full chest recoil.
C. Administer a breath.
D. Remove your hands from the chest.
Answer: B. Allow full chest recoil.
Rationale: Allowing full chest recoil between compressions is essential for adequate venous
return and cardiac filling. Incomplete recoil reduces the effectiveness of CPR .
QUESTION 4
Complications associated with chest compressions include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. A fractured sternum.
B. Gastric distention.
C. Rib fractures.
D. Liver laceration.
Answer: B. Gastric distention.
Rationale: Gastric distention is a complication of excessive ventilation, not chest
compressions. Chest compressions can cause rib fractures, sternal fractures, and liver
lacerations .
QUESTION 5
CPR is in progress on a pregnant woman. Shortly after manually displacing her uterus to
,the left, return of spontaneous circulation occurs. Which of the following would MOST
likely explain this?
A. Displacement of her uterus caused blood to flow backward, which increased blood
flow to her heart.
B. Increased blood flow to her heart caused her ventricles to stop fibrillating.
C. Displacement of her uterus allowed her lungs to expand more fully.
D. Pressure was relieved from her aorta and vena cava, which improved chest
compression effectiveness.
Answer: D. Pressure was relieved from her aorta and vena cava, which improved
chest compression effectiveness.
Rationale: In a pregnant patient, the gravid uterus can compress the aorta and inferior
vena cava when the patient is supine. Left uterine displacement relieves this pressure,
improving venous return and cardiac output during CPR .
QUESTION 6
CPR retraining is the MOST effective when it:
A. Occurs every 24 months.
B. Is delivered by computer.
C. Involves hands-on practice.
D. Is self-paced and brief.
Answer: C. Involves hands-on practice.
Rationale: Hands-on practice is the most effective method for CPR skill retention. Active
participation and psychomotor practice reinforce proper technique better than passive
learning methods .
QUESTION 7
CPR should be initiated when:
A. Rigor mortis is obvious.
B. Signs of putrefaction are present.
, C. The carotid pulse is very weak.
D. A valid living will is unavailable.
Answer: D. A valid living will is unavailable.
Rationale: CPR should be initiated when there is no pulse and no breathing, unless there
are clear signs of irreversible death (rigor mortis, dependent lividity, or obvious fatal injury)
or a valid Do Not Resuscitate order .
QUESTION 8
CPR will NOT be effective if the patient is:
A. Supine.
B. Prone.
C. Horizontal.
D. On a firm surface.
Answer: B. Prone.
Rationale: CPR cannot be effectively performed on a patient in the prone position. The
patient must be supine on a firm, flat surface to allow for adequate chest compressions .
QUESTION 9
Gastric distention will MOST likely occur:
A. When you deliver minimal tidal volume.
B. If you ventilate a patient too quickly.
C. In patients who are intubated.
D. When the airway is completely obstructed.
Answer: B. If you ventilate a patient too quickly.
Rationale: Gastric distention occurs when air is forced into the stomach during
ventilations. This is more likely with excessive ventilation rate or volume, or when the
airway is not properly opened .
