Pharmacology and Pharmacotherapeutics in Advanced
Nursing Practice NGR6172
SECTION A: PRESCRIPTIVE AUTHORITY & ROLE IMPLEMENTATION
Question 1
The Advanced Practice Registered Nurse (APRN) role development and
prescriptive authority in Florida now includes:
A. Prescribing of controlled substances since 2017
B. Independent prescribing of all drugs without physician oversight
C. Prescribing privileges limited to non-controlled substances only
D. Prescribing authority that does not require DEA registration
Answer: A. Prescribing of controlled substances since 2017
Rationale: Since 2017, APRNs in Florida have had prescriptive authority for
controlled substances, representing a significant expansion of APRN practice
authority .
Question 2
According to the NGR6172 curriculum, what does the drug's "succESS" refer to?
A. The cost-effectiveness of a medication
B. The three most important characteristics of any drug: Effectiveness, Safety, and
Selectivity
C. The success rate of clinical trials
D. The therapeutic index of a medication
Answer: B. The three most important characteristics of any drug: Effectiveness,
Safety, and Selectivity
,Rationale: The drug's "succESS" refers to Effectiveness, Safety, and Selectivity—the
three most important characteristics of any drug. Effectiveness determines
therapeutic benefit, safety minimizes harm, and selectivity reduces side effects .
Question 3
Which member of the healthcare team is most likely to observe and evaluate drug
responses and intervene if required?
A. Physician
B. Pharmacist
C. Nurse/APRN
D. Medical assistant
Answer: C. Nurse/APRN
Rationale: The nurse and advanced practice nurse are most likely to observe and
evaluate drug responses and intervene if required, as they provide ongoing
monitoring and direct patient care .
Question 4
What are the three most important goals of pre-administration assessment?
A. Evaluate effects, identify high-risk patients, assess for self-care
B. Confirm diagnosis, prescribe medication, monitor outcomes
C. Assess vital signs, review labs, obtain consent
D. Identify allergies, check drug interactions, verify dosage
Answer: A. Evaluate effects, identify high-risk patients, assess for self-care
Rationale: The three most important goals of pre-administration assessment are:
1) evaluate effects, 2) identify high-risk patients, and 3) assess for self-care. This
ensures safe and effective medication administration .
,Question 5
What was the primary purpose of traditional primary care models regarding
prescriptive authority?
A. To limit prescribing to APRNs only
B. To protect the public by designating physicians as the only providers with
diagnostic and treatment authority
C. To reduce healthcare costs
D. To increase medication access
Answer: B. To protect the public by designating physicians as the only providers
with diagnostic and treatment authority
Rationale: Traditional primary care models designated physicians as the only
providers with diagnostic and treatment authority, with the intention of protecting
the public. This has evolved as APRNs have gained prescriptive authority .
Question 6
In Florida, since what year have APRNs had prescriptive authority for controlled
substances?
A. 2015
B. 2017
C. 2019
D. 2021
Answer: B. 2017
Rationale: Since 2017, APRNs in Florida have had prescriptive authority for
controlled substances, representing a significant expansion of APRN practice
authority .
, Question 7
Which of the following are examples of Schedule II controlled substances? (Select
all that apply.)
A. Codeine
B. Fentanyl
C. Hydromorphone
D. Morphine
E. Dextroamphetamine
Answer: A, B, C, D, E
Rationale: Schedule II drugs include codeine, fentanyl, hydromorphone, morphine,
dextroamphetamine, and other substances with high abuse potential but accepted
medical use. Schedule II medications require a hard copy prescription and cannot
be called in to the pharmacy .
Question 8
Benzodiazepines such as Alprazolam (Xanax), Diazepam (Valium), and Lorazepam
(Ativan) are classified as which schedule of controlled substances?
A. Schedule II
B. Schedule III
C. Schedule IV
D. Schedule V
Answer: C. Schedule IV
Rationale: Benzodiazepines are Schedule IV controlled substances. They have a
lower abuse potential than Schedule II and III drugs but still carry dependence risk .
Question 9
Which Amendment to the FDA and Cosmetic Act strengthened drug regulation
after the Thalidomide tragedy in Europe?
Nursing Practice NGR6172
SECTION A: PRESCRIPTIVE AUTHORITY & ROLE IMPLEMENTATION
Question 1
The Advanced Practice Registered Nurse (APRN) role development and
prescriptive authority in Florida now includes:
A. Prescribing of controlled substances since 2017
B. Independent prescribing of all drugs without physician oversight
C. Prescribing privileges limited to non-controlled substances only
D. Prescribing authority that does not require DEA registration
Answer: A. Prescribing of controlled substances since 2017
Rationale: Since 2017, APRNs in Florida have had prescriptive authority for
controlled substances, representing a significant expansion of APRN practice
authority .
Question 2
According to the NGR6172 curriculum, what does the drug's "succESS" refer to?
A. The cost-effectiveness of a medication
B. The three most important characteristics of any drug: Effectiveness, Safety, and
Selectivity
C. The success rate of clinical trials
D. The therapeutic index of a medication
Answer: B. The three most important characteristics of any drug: Effectiveness,
Safety, and Selectivity
,Rationale: The drug's "succESS" refers to Effectiveness, Safety, and Selectivity—the
three most important characteristics of any drug. Effectiveness determines
therapeutic benefit, safety minimizes harm, and selectivity reduces side effects .
Question 3
Which member of the healthcare team is most likely to observe and evaluate drug
responses and intervene if required?
A. Physician
B. Pharmacist
C. Nurse/APRN
D. Medical assistant
Answer: C. Nurse/APRN
Rationale: The nurse and advanced practice nurse are most likely to observe and
evaluate drug responses and intervene if required, as they provide ongoing
monitoring and direct patient care .
Question 4
What are the three most important goals of pre-administration assessment?
A. Evaluate effects, identify high-risk patients, assess for self-care
B. Confirm diagnosis, prescribe medication, monitor outcomes
C. Assess vital signs, review labs, obtain consent
D. Identify allergies, check drug interactions, verify dosage
Answer: A. Evaluate effects, identify high-risk patients, assess for self-care
Rationale: The three most important goals of pre-administration assessment are:
1) evaluate effects, 2) identify high-risk patients, and 3) assess for self-care. This
ensures safe and effective medication administration .
,Question 5
What was the primary purpose of traditional primary care models regarding
prescriptive authority?
A. To limit prescribing to APRNs only
B. To protect the public by designating physicians as the only providers with
diagnostic and treatment authority
C. To reduce healthcare costs
D. To increase medication access
Answer: B. To protect the public by designating physicians as the only providers
with diagnostic and treatment authority
Rationale: Traditional primary care models designated physicians as the only
providers with diagnostic and treatment authority, with the intention of protecting
the public. This has evolved as APRNs have gained prescriptive authority .
Question 6
In Florida, since what year have APRNs had prescriptive authority for controlled
substances?
A. 2015
B. 2017
C. 2019
D. 2021
Answer: B. 2017
Rationale: Since 2017, APRNs in Florida have had prescriptive authority for
controlled substances, representing a significant expansion of APRN practice
authority .
, Question 7
Which of the following are examples of Schedule II controlled substances? (Select
all that apply.)
A. Codeine
B. Fentanyl
C. Hydromorphone
D. Morphine
E. Dextroamphetamine
Answer: A, B, C, D, E
Rationale: Schedule II drugs include codeine, fentanyl, hydromorphone, morphine,
dextroamphetamine, and other substances with high abuse potential but accepted
medical use. Schedule II medications require a hard copy prescription and cannot
be called in to the pharmacy .
Question 8
Benzodiazepines such as Alprazolam (Xanax), Diazepam (Valium), and Lorazepam
(Ativan) are classified as which schedule of controlled substances?
A. Schedule II
B. Schedule III
C. Schedule IV
D. Schedule V
Answer: C. Schedule IV
Rationale: Benzodiazepines are Schedule IV controlled substances. They have a
lower abuse potential than Schedule II and III drugs but still carry dependence risk .
Question 9
Which Amendment to the FDA and Cosmetic Act strengthened drug regulation
after the Thalidomide tragedy in Europe?
