TNT 800.6PBP FINAL PROJECT: COMPLETE
PRE-K LEARNING ENVIRONMENT &
BEHAVIOR MANAGEMENT PLAN | 2026
UPDATE!!!
Category 1: Triage & Emergency Preparedness (Questions 1-35)
1. A patient presents with a heart rate of 130 bpm, respiratory rate of 26/min,
and a temperature of 103.2°F. They are confused and have a history of COPD.
What triage acuity level does this represent?
A. Level 1 (Resuscitation)
B. Level 2 (Emergent)
C. Level 3 (Urgent)
D. Level 4 (Semi-urgent)
Answer: B. Level 2 (Emergent)
Rationale: This patient has abnormal vitals and confusion, indicating a high
risk for deterioration. While they are not in cardiac arrest (Level 1), they
require immediate, rapid assessment and treatment (within 10 minutes).
2. During a mass casualty incident (MCI), a patient is not breathing and has no
pulse. Using the START triage system, what is their correct triage category?
A. Green (Minor)
B. Yellow (Delayed)
C. Red (Immediate)
D. Black (Deceased/Expectant)
,Answer: D. Black (Deceased/Expectant)
Rationale: In a mass casualty situation, patients who are apneic and pulseless
with no spontaneous respirations after opening the airway are classified as
Black (expectant) to allocate resources to those with a higher chance of
survival.
3. A patient presents with generalized urticaria, angioedema, and stridor after
a bee sting. Which intervention has the highest priority?
A. Administer diphenhydramine (Benadryl) IV.
B. Establish a definitive airway.
C. Administer normal saline fluid bolus.
D. Administer subcutaneous epinephrine.
Answer: B. Establish a definitive airway.
Rationale: Stridor indicates upper airway obstruction. While epinephrine is
the definitive treatment for anaphylaxis, the immediate priority is to secure
the airway and prevent respiratory arrest. Airway always takes precedence.
4. Which finding in a patient with a suspected acute stroke would be a
contraindication to receiving intravenous alteplase (tPA)?
A. Blood pressure of 148/92 mmHg
B. Onset of symptoms 2.5 hours ago
C. Blood glucose of 45 mg/dL
D. Mild unilateral facial droop
Answer: C. Blood glucose of 45 mg/dL
Rationale: Hypoglycemia can mimic stroke symptoms. Severe hypoglycemia
must be corrected before tPA is considered to rule out stroke mimics. BP
>185/110, time >3-4.5 hours, and minor deficits are also relative/exclusion
criteria, but hypoglycemia is a clear contraindication initially.
,5. A patient arrives via ambulance with a core temperature of 108°F (42.2°C)
and hot, dry skin. Which intervention is initiated first to prevent fatal
hyperthermia?
A. Cold saline (4°C) IV infusion.
B. Application of ice packs to the groin and axillae.
C. Immediate cold-water immersion.
D. Administration of dantrolene sodium.
Answer: C. Immediate cold-water immersion.
Rationale: For severe exertional heat stroke, cold-water immersion is the
most rapid and effective method of cooling and is the first-line treatment.
6. What is the primary difference between a disaster and a mass casualty
incident (MCI)?
A. A disaster exceeds the community's ability to cope without external
assistance.
B. An MCI involves more than 10 patients.
C. A disaster requires activation of the hospital command center.
D. An MCI only occurs during natural events.
Answer: A. A disaster exceeds the community's ability to cope without
external assistance.
Rationale: An MCI involves a large number of casualties but may be managed
with local resources. A disaster significantly disrupts the community and
requires outside aid and resources.
7. A nurse is triaging a patient with a headache, photophobia, and nuchal
rigidity. The patient is oriented x3. How should they be triaged?
A. Fast track to radiology.
, B. Triage Level 2 (Emergent).
C. Triage Level 3 (Urgent).
D. Triage Level 1 (Resuscitation).
Answer: B. Triage Level 2 (Emergent).
Rationale: Although the patient is currently stable, the symptoms of nuchal
rigidity, headache, and photophobia suggest possible meningitis or
subarachnoid hemorrhage, which are time-sensitive emergencies requiring
immediate evaluation and antibiotics or diagnostics.
8. In chemical warfare, which agent causes a distinct "garlic" or "bitter
almond" odor and blocks the cellular use of oxygen, leading to severe
metabolic acidosis?
A. Cyanide
B. Sarin
C. Mustard gas
D. Chlorine gas
Answer: A. Cyanide
Rationale: Cyanide has a bitter almond odor (though not everyone can smell
it) and causes cellular hypoxia by inhibiting cytochrome oxidase, leading to
profound lactic acidosis. The antidote is the cyanide antidote kit.
9. A patient involved in an explosion presents with tympanic membrane
rupture, pulmonary contusions, and abdominal bruising. This patient's
injuries are most consistent with which blast injury phase?
A. Primary blast injury
B. Secondary blast injury
C. Tertiary blast injury
D. Quaternary blast injury
PRE-K LEARNING ENVIRONMENT &
BEHAVIOR MANAGEMENT PLAN | 2026
UPDATE!!!
Category 1: Triage & Emergency Preparedness (Questions 1-35)
1. A patient presents with a heart rate of 130 bpm, respiratory rate of 26/min,
and a temperature of 103.2°F. They are confused and have a history of COPD.
What triage acuity level does this represent?
A. Level 1 (Resuscitation)
B. Level 2 (Emergent)
C. Level 3 (Urgent)
D. Level 4 (Semi-urgent)
Answer: B. Level 2 (Emergent)
Rationale: This patient has abnormal vitals and confusion, indicating a high
risk for deterioration. While they are not in cardiac arrest (Level 1), they
require immediate, rapid assessment and treatment (within 10 minutes).
2. During a mass casualty incident (MCI), a patient is not breathing and has no
pulse. Using the START triage system, what is their correct triage category?
A. Green (Minor)
B. Yellow (Delayed)
C. Red (Immediate)
D. Black (Deceased/Expectant)
,Answer: D. Black (Deceased/Expectant)
Rationale: In a mass casualty situation, patients who are apneic and pulseless
with no spontaneous respirations after opening the airway are classified as
Black (expectant) to allocate resources to those with a higher chance of
survival.
3. A patient presents with generalized urticaria, angioedema, and stridor after
a bee sting. Which intervention has the highest priority?
A. Administer diphenhydramine (Benadryl) IV.
B. Establish a definitive airway.
C. Administer normal saline fluid bolus.
D. Administer subcutaneous epinephrine.
Answer: B. Establish a definitive airway.
Rationale: Stridor indicates upper airway obstruction. While epinephrine is
the definitive treatment for anaphylaxis, the immediate priority is to secure
the airway and prevent respiratory arrest. Airway always takes precedence.
4. Which finding in a patient with a suspected acute stroke would be a
contraindication to receiving intravenous alteplase (tPA)?
A. Blood pressure of 148/92 mmHg
B. Onset of symptoms 2.5 hours ago
C. Blood glucose of 45 mg/dL
D. Mild unilateral facial droop
Answer: C. Blood glucose of 45 mg/dL
Rationale: Hypoglycemia can mimic stroke symptoms. Severe hypoglycemia
must be corrected before tPA is considered to rule out stroke mimics. BP
>185/110, time >3-4.5 hours, and minor deficits are also relative/exclusion
criteria, but hypoglycemia is a clear contraindication initially.
,5. A patient arrives via ambulance with a core temperature of 108°F (42.2°C)
and hot, dry skin. Which intervention is initiated first to prevent fatal
hyperthermia?
A. Cold saline (4°C) IV infusion.
B. Application of ice packs to the groin and axillae.
C. Immediate cold-water immersion.
D. Administration of dantrolene sodium.
Answer: C. Immediate cold-water immersion.
Rationale: For severe exertional heat stroke, cold-water immersion is the
most rapid and effective method of cooling and is the first-line treatment.
6. What is the primary difference between a disaster and a mass casualty
incident (MCI)?
A. A disaster exceeds the community's ability to cope without external
assistance.
B. An MCI involves more than 10 patients.
C. A disaster requires activation of the hospital command center.
D. An MCI only occurs during natural events.
Answer: A. A disaster exceeds the community's ability to cope without
external assistance.
Rationale: An MCI involves a large number of casualties but may be managed
with local resources. A disaster significantly disrupts the community and
requires outside aid and resources.
7. A nurse is triaging a patient with a headache, photophobia, and nuchal
rigidity. The patient is oriented x3. How should they be triaged?
A. Fast track to radiology.
, B. Triage Level 2 (Emergent).
C. Triage Level 3 (Urgent).
D. Triage Level 1 (Resuscitation).
Answer: B. Triage Level 2 (Emergent).
Rationale: Although the patient is currently stable, the symptoms of nuchal
rigidity, headache, and photophobia suggest possible meningitis or
subarachnoid hemorrhage, which are time-sensitive emergencies requiring
immediate evaluation and antibiotics or diagnostics.
8. In chemical warfare, which agent causes a distinct "garlic" or "bitter
almond" odor and blocks the cellular use of oxygen, leading to severe
metabolic acidosis?
A. Cyanide
B. Sarin
C. Mustard gas
D. Chlorine gas
Answer: A. Cyanide
Rationale: Cyanide has a bitter almond odor (though not everyone can smell
it) and causes cellular hypoxia by inhibiting cytochrome oxidase, leading to
profound lactic acidosis. The antidote is the cyanide antidote kit.
9. A patient involved in an explosion presents with tympanic membrane
rupture, pulmonary contusions, and abdominal bruising. This patient's
injuries are most consistent with which blast injury phase?
A. Primary blast injury
B. Secondary blast injury
C. Tertiary blast injury
D. Quaternary blast injury
