HESI OB/PEDS Practice Exam Questions and Answers 2025-2026
Question 1 – Prenatal Care
A client who is 10 weeks pregnant asks why she should take folic acid during pregnancy.
A. To prevent gestational diabetes
B. To reduce the risk of neural tube defects
C. To increase fetal movement
D. To prevent postpartum hemorrhage
Answer: B. To reduce the risk of neural tube defects
Rationale: Folic acid taken before conception and during early pregnancy significantly reduces the
risk of neural tube defects such as spina bifida and anencephaly.
Question 2 – Expected Pregnancy Changes
Which finding is expected during a healthy pregnancy?
A. Blood pressure of 170/100 mm Hg
B. Mild ankle edema at the end of the day
C. Heavy vaginal bleeding
D. Severe, persistent headache with blurred vision
Answer: B. Mild ankle edema at the end of the day
Rationale: Mild dependent edema is common due to increased blood volume and venous pressure.
Severe hypertension, headaches, vision changes, or bleeding require immediate evaluation.
Question 3 – Gestational Diabetes
A pregnant client with gestational diabetes asks why blood glucose control is important.
A. To prevent fetal macrosomia and neonatal hypoglycemia
B. To eliminate morning sickness
C. To reduce fetal movement
D. To prevent Rh incompatibility
Answer: A
Rationale: Poor glucose control can cause excessive fetal growth (macrosomia), birth trauma, and
neonatal hypoglycemia after delivery.
Question 4 – Labor Assessment
A laboring client has contractions every 3 minutes lasting 60 seconds. The fetal heart rate is 140
beats/min with moderate variability.
How should the nurse interpret these findings?
,A. Normal fetal status
B. Fetal distress
C. Cord prolapse
D. Placental abruption
Answer: A
Rationale: A fetal heart rate of 110–160 beats/min with moderate variability is reassuring and
indicates adequate fetal oxygenation.
Question 5 – SATA: Signs of Preeclampsia
Which findings are associated with preeclampsia? (Select all that apply.)
A. Blood pressure 162/98 mm Hg
B. Proteinuria
C. Severe headache
D. Visual disturbances
E. Blood glucose 90 mg/dL
Answer: A, B, C, D
Rationale:
Hypertension is a key diagnostic criterion.
Proteinuria suggests kidney involvement.
Severe headache and vision changes indicate worsening disease.
A normal blood glucose level is unrelated.
Question 6 – Newborn Assessment
Which newborn finding requires immediate intervention?
A. Acrocyanosis during the first few hours of life
B. Heart rate of 140/min
C. Central cyanosis of the lips and tongue
D. Respiratory rate of 40/min
Answer: C
Rationale: Central cyanosis indicates inadequate oxygenation and requires immediate evaluation.
Acrocyanosis is a normal transitional finding.
Question 7 – Breastfeeding
A breastfeeding mother reports sore nipples.
What is the nurse's best recommendation?
,A. Assess the infant's latch and positioning.
B. Stop breastfeeding permanently.
C. Limit all feedings to 5 minutes.
D. Skip feedings until the nipples heal.
Answer: A
Rationale: An improper latch is the most common cause of sore nipples. Correct positioning usually
resolves the problem.
Question 8 – Pediatric Growth
At what age does a healthy infant typically begin sitting without support?
A. 2 months
B. 4 months
C. 6–8 months
D. 12 months
Answer: C
Rationale: Most infants sit independently between 6 and 8 months of age.
Question 9 – Immunizations
Which statement by a parent indicates understanding of childhood immunizations?
A. "Vaccines help protect my child from serious infectious diseases."
B. "My child only needs vaccines if traveling internationally."
C. "Vaccines are no longer necessary after infancy."
D. "If my child has a mild cold, vaccines should never be given."
Answer: A
Rationale: Routine immunizations are an important way to prevent many serious childhood illnesses.
Mild illness without significant fever is generally not a contraindication to vaccination.
Question 10 – Pediatric Respiratory Illness
A toddler has a barking cough, hoarseness, and inspiratory stridor.
Which condition is most likely?
A. Epiglottitis
B. Croup
C. Asthma
D. Pneumonia
Answer: B. Croup
, Rationale: Croup typically presents with a barking cough, hoarseness, and inspiratory stridor caused
by inflammation of the upper airway.
Question 11 – Placenta Previa
A client at 32 weeks' gestation arrives with bright red, painless vaginal bleeding. What is the nurse's
priority action?
A. Perform a vaginal examination.
B. Assess maternal vital signs and fetal heart rate, and notify the provider.
C. Encourage the client to ambulate.
D. Administer oxytocin.
Answer: B
Rationale: Bright red, painless bleeding is characteristic of placenta previa. A vaginal examination
should be avoided until placenta previa has been ruled out because it may worsen bleeding.
Question 12 – Placental Abruption
A pregnant client reports severe abdominal pain, uterine tenderness, and dark vaginal bleeding.
Which condition should the nurse suspect?
A. Placenta previa
B. Placental abruption
C. Preterm labor
D. Ectopic pregnancy
Answer: B
Rationale: Placental abruption typically presents with painful vaginal bleeding, a rigid or tender
uterus, and possible fetal distress.
Question 13 – Postpartum Hemorrhage
A nurse assesses a client 1 hour after delivery. The uterus is boggy and displaced to the right.
What is the nurse's first intervention?
A. Massage the uterine fundus and assess bladder fullness.
B. Administer pain medication.
C. Encourage the client to sleep.
D. Place the client in Trendelenburg position.
Answer: A
Rationale: A boggy uterus indicates uterine atony, the most common cause of postpartum
hemorrhage. Fundal massage and assessment for bladder distention are priority interventions.
Question 14 – Newborn Reflexes
Question 1 – Prenatal Care
A client who is 10 weeks pregnant asks why she should take folic acid during pregnancy.
A. To prevent gestational diabetes
B. To reduce the risk of neural tube defects
C. To increase fetal movement
D. To prevent postpartum hemorrhage
Answer: B. To reduce the risk of neural tube defects
Rationale: Folic acid taken before conception and during early pregnancy significantly reduces the
risk of neural tube defects such as spina bifida and anencephaly.
Question 2 – Expected Pregnancy Changes
Which finding is expected during a healthy pregnancy?
A. Blood pressure of 170/100 mm Hg
B. Mild ankle edema at the end of the day
C. Heavy vaginal bleeding
D. Severe, persistent headache with blurred vision
Answer: B. Mild ankle edema at the end of the day
Rationale: Mild dependent edema is common due to increased blood volume and venous pressure.
Severe hypertension, headaches, vision changes, or bleeding require immediate evaluation.
Question 3 – Gestational Diabetes
A pregnant client with gestational diabetes asks why blood glucose control is important.
A. To prevent fetal macrosomia and neonatal hypoglycemia
B. To eliminate morning sickness
C. To reduce fetal movement
D. To prevent Rh incompatibility
Answer: A
Rationale: Poor glucose control can cause excessive fetal growth (macrosomia), birth trauma, and
neonatal hypoglycemia after delivery.
Question 4 – Labor Assessment
A laboring client has contractions every 3 minutes lasting 60 seconds. The fetal heart rate is 140
beats/min with moderate variability.
How should the nurse interpret these findings?
,A. Normal fetal status
B. Fetal distress
C. Cord prolapse
D. Placental abruption
Answer: A
Rationale: A fetal heart rate of 110–160 beats/min with moderate variability is reassuring and
indicates adequate fetal oxygenation.
Question 5 – SATA: Signs of Preeclampsia
Which findings are associated with preeclampsia? (Select all that apply.)
A. Blood pressure 162/98 mm Hg
B. Proteinuria
C. Severe headache
D. Visual disturbances
E. Blood glucose 90 mg/dL
Answer: A, B, C, D
Rationale:
Hypertension is a key diagnostic criterion.
Proteinuria suggests kidney involvement.
Severe headache and vision changes indicate worsening disease.
A normal blood glucose level is unrelated.
Question 6 – Newborn Assessment
Which newborn finding requires immediate intervention?
A. Acrocyanosis during the first few hours of life
B. Heart rate of 140/min
C. Central cyanosis of the lips and tongue
D. Respiratory rate of 40/min
Answer: C
Rationale: Central cyanosis indicates inadequate oxygenation and requires immediate evaluation.
Acrocyanosis is a normal transitional finding.
Question 7 – Breastfeeding
A breastfeeding mother reports sore nipples.
What is the nurse's best recommendation?
,A. Assess the infant's latch and positioning.
B. Stop breastfeeding permanently.
C. Limit all feedings to 5 minutes.
D. Skip feedings until the nipples heal.
Answer: A
Rationale: An improper latch is the most common cause of sore nipples. Correct positioning usually
resolves the problem.
Question 8 – Pediatric Growth
At what age does a healthy infant typically begin sitting without support?
A. 2 months
B. 4 months
C. 6–8 months
D. 12 months
Answer: C
Rationale: Most infants sit independently between 6 and 8 months of age.
Question 9 – Immunizations
Which statement by a parent indicates understanding of childhood immunizations?
A. "Vaccines help protect my child from serious infectious diseases."
B. "My child only needs vaccines if traveling internationally."
C. "Vaccines are no longer necessary after infancy."
D. "If my child has a mild cold, vaccines should never be given."
Answer: A
Rationale: Routine immunizations are an important way to prevent many serious childhood illnesses.
Mild illness without significant fever is generally not a contraindication to vaccination.
Question 10 – Pediatric Respiratory Illness
A toddler has a barking cough, hoarseness, and inspiratory stridor.
Which condition is most likely?
A. Epiglottitis
B. Croup
C. Asthma
D. Pneumonia
Answer: B. Croup
, Rationale: Croup typically presents with a barking cough, hoarseness, and inspiratory stridor caused
by inflammation of the upper airway.
Question 11 – Placenta Previa
A client at 32 weeks' gestation arrives with bright red, painless vaginal bleeding. What is the nurse's
priority action?
A. Perform a vaginal examination.
B. Assess maternal vital signs and fetal heart rate, and notify the provider.
C. Encourage the client to ambulate.
D. Administer oxytocin.
Answer: B
Rationale: Bright red, painless bleeding is characteristic of placenta previa. A vaginal examination
should be avoided until placenta previa has been ruled out because it may worsen bleeding.
Question 12 – Placental Abruption
A pregnant client reports severe abdominal pain, uterine tenderness, and dark vaginal bleeding.
Which condition should the nurse suspect?
A. Placenta previa
B. Placental abruption
C. Preterm labor
D. Ectopic pregnancy
Answer: B
Rationale: Placental abruption typically presents with painful vaginal bleeding, a rigid or tender
uterus, and possible fetal distress.
Question 13 – Postpartum Hemorrhage
A nurse assesses a client 1 hour after delivery. The uterus is boggy and displaced to the right.
What is the nurse's first intervention?
A. Massage the uterine fundus and assess bladder fullness.
B. Administer pain medication.
C. Encourage the client to sleep.
D. Place the client in Trendelenburg position.
Answer: A
Rationale: A boggy uterus indicates uterine atony, the most common cause of postpartum
hemorrhage. Fundal massage and assessment for bladder distention are priority interventions.
Question 14 – Newborn Reflexes
