WGU D236
Pathophysiology
OA V2 EXAM
(3 Full Exams Set)
Actual Questions with Verified Answers
Pass the Exam with Confidence
What You Will Get:
➢220 OA Exam Questions w/ Answers
➢ (Megan/Shay’s Study Guides)
➢ Casey's WGU NY01 Patho Note
➢ Expert Rationales included.
Take and pass the OA :)
, Preview Pages Below
Get the Complete PDF After Purchase
"If you require further clarification or in need of any study resources,
feel free to Message me."
Preview sample only
,Table of Contents
D236 OA – V2 Exam 1 ......................................................................... 2
D236 OA – V2 Exam 2 ....................................................................... 30
D236 OA – V2 Exam 3 ....................................................................... 68
D236 Patho - Megan/Shay’s Study Guides .................................... 102
Casey's WGU NY01 Patho Notes ................................................... 163
D236 OA – V2 Exam 1
1. A patient presents with sudden onset of limb pain, pallor, and absent distal
pulses after prolonged immobilization following hip surgery. Which
cardiovascular condition involves a blood clot blocking circulation in blood
vessels?
A. Thrombosis
B. Embolism
C. Aneurysm
D. Stenosis
Correct Answer: B
Expert Rationale:
An embolism occurs when a detached thrombus or other foreign material (embolus)
travels through the bloodstream and occludes a vessel, causing acute ischemia.
Thrombosis refers to clot formation at the site, whereas an embolism specifically
involves migration and obstruction. Aneurysm is a localized vessel dilation, and stenosis
is narrowing without complete occlusion.
,2. A 28-year-old construction worker slips on a wet log and lands on a sharp stick,
puncturing his thigh. Two hours later, the wound site demonstrates erythema,
warmth, and purulent drainage. Which type of cell phagocytoses bacteria and
damaged cells as part of the innate immune response?
A. Basophil
B. Lymphocyte
C. Neutrophil
D. Eosinophil
Correct Answer: C
Expert Rationale:
Neutrophils are the first responders in acute inflammation and are highly phagocytic,
engulfing bacteria and cellular debris. Basophils mediate allergic responses via
histamine release. Lymphocytes are central to adaptive immunity. Eosinophils primarily
target parasitic infections and modulate allergic reactions.
3. A 17-year-old male is evaluated for infertility. Physical examination reveals
gynecomastia, small firm testes, sparse body hair, a high-pitched voice, tall
stature, and moderate intellectual disability. Which chromosomal condition does
this person most likely have?
A. Turner syndrome
B. Klinefelter syndrome
C. Down syndrome
D. Fragile X syndrome
Correct Answer: B
Expert Rationale:
Klinefelter syndrome (47,XXY) is the most common sex chromosome disorder in males.
Clinical manifestations include hypogonadism, gynecomastia, tall stature, reduced body
hair, and varying degrees of cognitive impairment. Turner syndrome (45,X) affects
females. Down syndrome (trisomy 21) presents with distinct craniofacial features and
intellectual disability but not hypogonadism. Fragile X syndrome is associated with
macroorchidism and autism spectrum features.
, D236 OA – V2 Exam 2
1. A patient has severe itching on the face. The physical exam reveals dry skin
and small lesions. The patient has a family history of allergic rhinitis. The
physician prescribes topical anti-itch cream and instructs daily skin care. Which
condition is described?
A. Psoriasis
B. Eczema
C. Contact dermatitis
D. Urticaria
Correct Answer: B
Expert Rationale:
Eczema (atopic dermatitis) is a chronic inflammatory skin condition characterized by
pruritus (itching), dry skin, and erythematous papules or vesicles. It is strongly
associated with a personal or family history of atopy (allergic rhinitis, asthma).
Treatment includes emollients, topical corticosteroids, and trigger avoidance. Psoriasis
(A) presents with well-demarcated plaques with silvery scale. Contact dermatitis (C)
requires an identifiable irritant/allergen exposure. Urticaria (D) presents as wheals.
2. A patient's record indicates a skin condition in which depigmentation appears
on different parts of the body that are often exposed to sunlight. A skin biopsy
reveals a lack of melanocytes. Which condition does this describe?
A. Albinism
B. Vitiligo
C. Melasma
D. Tinea versicolor
Correct Answer: B
Expert Rationale:
Vitiligo is an autoimmune disorder characterized by the destruction of melanocytes,
resulting in depigmented macules or patches commonly on sun-exposed areas (face,
,hands, arms). Histology confirms the absence of melanocytes. Albinism (A) is a
congenital reduction in melanin synthesis. Melasma (C) presents with
hyperpigmentation. Tinea versicolor (D) is a fungal infection causing hypopigmented or
hyperpigmented patches.
3. Medical records show that a patient presented with a skin condition
characterized by blackheads. The patient has scarring from this ongoing problem
and was prescribed antibacterial solution. Which condition is described?
A. Rosacea
B. Acne vulgaris
C. Seborrheic dermatitis
D. Folliculitis
Correct Answer: B
Expert Rationale:
Acne vulgaris is a disorder of the pilosebaceous unit characterized by comedones
(blackheads and whiteheads), papules, pustules, and potential scarring. Treatment
includes topical antibacterial agents (benzoyl peroxide, clindamycin), retinoids, and
systemic therapies for severe cases. Rosacea (A) presents with erythema and
telangiectasias without comedones. Folliculitis (D) involves hair follicle inflammation.
4. A 19-year-old patient reports persistent itching and peeling dry skin between
the first and second toes. The patient also has a burning sensation. An internal
medicine practitioner prescribes antifungal ointment and wash for the next four
weeks. Which condition does this patient have?
A. Contact dermatitis
B. Tinea pedis
C. Psoriasis
D. Eczema
Correct Answer: B
Expert Rationale:
Tinea pedis (athlete's foot) is a dermatophyte fungal infection commonly affecting the
interdigital spaces of the feet. It presents with pruritus, scaling, maceration, and burning.
, D236 OA – V2 Exam 3
1. A patient record documents headaches with memory defects. The patient's
color and temperature are unusual, and the patient reports pain at night. Which
condition is described?
a. Angina pectoris
b. Atherosclerosis
c. Myocardial infarction
d. Thrombophlebitis
Correct Answer: d. Thrombophlebitis
Expert Rationale:
Thrombophlebitis involves inflammation and thrombus formation in a superficial or deep
vein. Clinical manifestations include localized warmth, erythema (color change),
tenderness, and pain that may worsen at night or with palpation. While the memory
defects and headaches are atypical, the combination of color/temperature changes with
nocturnal limb pain strongly suggests venous inflammation. Angina and MI present with
chest pain; atherosclerosis is typically asymptomatic until complications arise.
2. A patient record indicates a type of hypertension that is typically above 180/120
and can cause serious damage to organ tissue. It was treated as a medical
emergency. Which type of hypertension did this patient have?
a. Pulmonary
b. Malignant
c. Essential
d. Renal
Correct Answer: b. Malignant
,Expert Rationale:
Malignant hypertension is defined by severe hypertension (systolic >180 mmHg or
diastolic >120-130 mmHg) accompanied by papilledema and/or acute target-organ
damage (encephalopathy, acute kidney injury, heart failure). It requires immediate
intervention to prevent irreversible organ damage. Essential hypertension is chronic and
asymptomatic; pulmonary hypertension affects pulmonary arteries; renal hypertension is
secondary to kidney disease but does not inherently imply emergency status.
3. A patient presents with fatigue, fever, and night sweats. An echocardiogram
showed vegetations. Which disease is described?
a. Stenosis
b. Pericarditis
c. Myocarditis
d. Endocarditis
Correct Answer: d. Endocarditis
Expert Rationale:
Infective endocarditis is characterized by the triad of fever, constitutional symptoms
(fatigue, night sweats, weight loss), and vegetation formation on heart valves visualized
by echocardiography (transesophageal echo is most sensitive). Vegetations are masses
of platelets, fibrin, microorganisms, and inflammatory cells. Stenosis is a valvular
narrowing; pericarditis involves the pericardial sac; myocarditis involves myocardial
inflammation without valvular vegetations.
4. Which type of anemia is characterized by insufficient or totally absent RBC
production and results in a patient having an inability to fight infection and
having a tendency to bleed?
a. Aplastic anemia
b. Folic acid deficiency anemia
c. Pernicious anemia
d. Iron deficiency anemia
Correct Answer: a. Aplastic anemia
Expert Rationale:
Aplastic anemia is a bone marrow failure syndrome characterized by pancytopenia
, D236 Patho - Megan/Shay’s Study Guides
What is the primary determinant of oncotic pressure?
Albumin
Form of osmotic pressure exerted by proteins
Oncotic Pressure
What is the difference between adult and child immunity?
Naive T Cells
Fluid and electrolyte levels are regulated by _________________, which regulates
actions such as thirst, ADH, the kidneys, and RAAS.
Osmoreceptors
What are the causes of dehydration?
#Excessive loss
#Inadequate intake
#Both
What s/sx are associated with dehydration?
#Dry mucous membranes
#Decreased skin turgor
#Decreased urine output
#Low blood pressure
#Tachycardia
#Weak heart rate
#Confusion
A patient with a viral illness and severe vomiting has an elevated CO2 level and
pH of 7.53. She is breathing slowly. What condition does she have?
Metabolic alkalosis
The patient's pH and CO2 levels are both elevated (moving in the same direction). This
, In DKA, HCO3/Bicarb is (consumed or excreted) therefore the anion gap
(increases or decreases).
consumed, increases
Bone fracture that occurs when a small piece of bone attached to a tendon or
ligament gets pulled away from the main part of the bone.
Greenstick fracture
Transverse fracture
Avulsion fracture
Comminuted fracture
Avulsion fracture
Greenstick = small, slender crack in bone
Transverse = straight break across bone
Comminuted = break in 3-4 places
What happens in dehydrated patients? _________ levels are high and
_______________ is activated.
ADH, RAAS
Pathophysiology
OA V2 EXAM
(3 Full Exams Set)
Actual Questions with Verified Answers
Pass the Exam with Confidence
What You Will Get:
➢220 OA Exam Questions w/ Answers
➢ (Megan/Shay’s Study Guides)
➢ Casey's WGU NY01 Patho Note
➢ Expert Rationales included.
Take and pass the OA :)
, Preview Pages Below
Get the Complete PDF After Purchase
"If you require further clarification or in need of any study resources,
feel free to Message me."
Preview sample only
,Table of Contents
D236 OA – V2 Exam 1 ......................................................................... 2
D236 OA – V2 Exam 2 ....................................................................... 30
D236 OA – V2 Exam 3 ....................................................................... 68
D236 Patho - Megan/Shay’s Study Guides .................................... 102
Casey's WGU NY01 Patho Notes ................................................... 163
D236 OA – V2 Exam 1
1. A patient presents with sudden onset of limb pain, pallor, and absent distal
pulses after prolonged immobilization following hip surgery. Which
cardiovascular condition involves a blood clot blocking circulation in blood
vessels?
A. Thrombosis
B. Embolism
C. Aneurysm
D. Stenosis
Correct Answer: B
Expert Rationale:
An embolism occurs when a detached thrombus or other foreign material (embolus)
travels through the bloodstream and occludes a vessel, causing acute ischemia.
Thrombosis refers to clot formation at the site, whereas an embolism specifically
involves migration and obstruction. Aneurysm is a localized vessel dilation, and stenosis
is narrowing without complete occlusion.
,2. A 28-year-old construction worker slips on a wet log and lands on a sharp stick,
puncturing his thigh. Two hours later, the wound site demonstrates erythema,
warmth, and purulent drainage. Which type of cell phagocytoses bacteria and
damaged cells as part of the innate immune response?
A. Basophil
B. Lymphocyte
C. Neutrophil
D. Eosinophil
Correct Answer: C
Expert Rationale:
Neutrophils are the first responders in acute inflammation and are highly phagocytic,
engulfing bacteria and cellular debris. Basophils mediate allergic responses via
histamine release. Lymphocytes are central to adaptive immunity. Eosinophils primarily
target parasitic infections and modulate allergic reactions.
3. A 17-year-old male is evaluated for infertility. Physical examination reveals
gynecomastia, small firm testes, sparse body hair, a high-pitched voice, tall
stature, and moderate intellectual disability. Which chromosomal condition does
this person most likely have?
A. Turner syndrome
B. Klinefelter syndrome
C. Down syndrome
D. Fragile X syndrome
Correct Answer: B
Expert Rationale:
Klinefelter syndrome (47,XXY) is the most common sex chromosome disorder in males.
Clinical manifestations include hypogonadism, gynecomastia, tall stature, reduced body
hair, and varying degrees of cognitive impairment. Turner syndrome (45,X) affects
females. Down syndrome (trisomy 21) presents with distinct craniofacial features and
intellectual disability but not hypogonadism. Fragile X syndrome is associated with
macroorchidism and autism spectrum features.
, D236 OA – V2 Exam 2
1. A patient has severe itching on the face. The physical exam reveals dry skin
and small lesions. The patient has a family history of allergic rhinitis. The
physician prescribes topical anti-itch cream and instructs daily skin care. Which
condition is described?
A. Psoriasis
B. Eczema
C. Contact dermatitis
D. Urticaria
Correct Answer: B
Expert Rationale:
Eczema (atopic dermatitis) is a chronic inflammatory skin condition characterized by
pruritus (itching), dry skin, and erythematous papules or vesicles. It is strongly
associated with a personal or family history of atopy (allergic rhinitis, asthma).
Treatment includes emollients, topical corticosteroids, and trigger avoidance. Psoriasis
(A) presents with well-demarcated plaques with silvery scale. Contact dermatitis (C)
requires an identifiable irritant/allergen exposure. Urticaria (D) presents as wheals.
2. A patient's record indicates a skin condition in which depigmentation appears
on different parts of the body that are often exposed to sunlight. A skin biopsy
reveals a lack of melanocytes. Which condition does this describe?
A. Albinism
B. Vitiligo
C. Melasma
D. Tinea versicolor
Correct Answer: B
Expert Rationale:
Vitiligo is an autoimmune disorder characterized by the destruction of melanocytes,
resulting in depigmented macules or patches commonly on sun-exposed areas (face,
,hands, arms). Histology confirms the absence of melanocytes. Albinism (A) is a
congenital reduction in melanin synthesis. Melasma (C) presents with
hyperpigmentation. Tinea versicolor (D) is a fungal infection causing hypopigmented or
hyperpigmented patches.
3. Medical records show that a patient presented with a skin condition
characterized by blackheads. The patient has scarring from this ongoing problem
and was prescribed antibacterial solution. Which condition is described?
A. Rosacea
B. Acne vulgaris
C. Seborrheic dermatitis
D. Folliculitis
Correct Answer: B
Expert Rationale:
Acne vulgaris is a disorder of the pilosebaceous unit characterized by comedones
(blackheads and whiteheads), papules, pustules, and potential scarring. Treatment
includes topical antibacterial agents (benzoyl peroxide, clindamycin), retinoids, and
systemic therapies for severe cases. Rosacea (A) presents with erythema and
telangiectasias without comedones. Folliculitis (D) involves hair follicle inflammation.
4. A 19-year-old patient reports persistent itching and peeling dry skin between
the first and second toes. The patient also has a burning sensation. An internal
medicine practitioner prescribes antifungal ointment and wash for the next four
weeks. Which condition does this patient have?
A. Contact dermatitis
B. Tinea pedis
C. Psoriasis
D. Eczema
Correct Answer: B
Expert Rationale:
Tinea pedis (athlete's foot) is a dermatophyte fungal infection commonly affecting the
interdigital spaces of the feet. It presents with pruritus, scaling, maceration, and burning.
, D236 OA – V2 Exam 3
1. A patient record documents headaches with memory defects. The patient's
color and temperature are unusual, and the patient reports pain at night. Which
condition is described?
a. Angina pectoris
b. Atherosclerosis
c. Myocardial infarction
d. Thrombophlebitis
Correct Answer: d. Thrombophlebitis
Expert Rationale:
Thrombophlebitis involves inflammation and thrombus formation in a superficial or deep
vein. Clinical manifestations include localized warmth, erythema (color change),
tenderness, and pain that may worsen at night or with palpation. While the memory
defects and headaches are atypical, the combination of color/temperature changes with
nocturnal limb pain strongly suggests venous inflammation. Angina and MI present with
chest pain; atherosclerosis is typically asymptomatic until complications arise.
2. A patient record indicates a type of hypertension that is typically above 180/120
and can cause serious damage to organ tissue. It was treated as a medical
emergency. Which type of hypertension did this patient have?
a. Pulmonary
b. Malignant
c. Essential
d. Renal
Correct Answer: b. Malignant
,Expert Rationale:
Malignant hypertension is defined by severe hypertension (systolic >180 mmHg or
diastolic >120-130 mmHg) accompanied by papilledema and/or acute target-organ
damage (encephalopathy, acute kidney injury, heart failure). It requires immediate
intervention to prevent irreversible organ damage. Essential hypertension is chronic and
asymptomatic; pulmonary hypertension affects pulmonary arteries; renal hypertension is
secondary to kidney disease but does not inherently imply emergency status.
3. A patient presents with fatigue, fever, and night sweats. An echocardiogram
showed vegetations. Which disease is described?
a. Stenosis
b. Pericarditis
c. Myocarditis
d. Endocarditis
Correct Answer: d. Endocarditis
Expert Rationale:
Infective endocarditis is characterized by the triad of fever, constitutional symptoms
(fatigue, night sweats, weight loss), and vegetation formation on heart valves visualized
by echocardiography (transesophageal echo is most sensitive). Vegetations are masses
of platelets, fibrin, microorganisms, and inflammatory cells. Stenosis is a valvular
narrowing; pericarditis involves the pericardial sac; myocarditis involves myocardial
inflammation without valvular vegetations.
4. Which type of anemia is characterized by insufficient or totally absent RBC
production and results in a patient having an inability to fight infection and
having a tendency to bleed?
a. Aplastic anemia
b. Folic acid deficiency anemia
c. Pernicious anemia
d. Iron deficiency anemia
Correct Answer: a. Aplastic anemia
Expert Rationale:
Aplastic anemia is a bone marrow failure syndrome characterized by pancytopenia
, D236 Patho - Megan/Shay’s Study Guides
What is the primary determinant of oncotic pressure?
Albumin
Form of osmotic pressure exerted by proteins
Oncotic Pressure
What is the difference between adult and child immunity?
Naive T Cells
Fluid and electrolyte levels are regulated by _________________, which regulates
actions such as thirst, ADH, the kidneys, and RAAS.
Osmoreceptors
What are the causes of dehydration?
#Excessive loss
#Inadequate intake
#Both
What s/sx are associated with dehydration?
#Dry mucous membranes
#Decreased skin turgor
#Decreased urine output
#Low blood pressure
#Tachycardia
#Weak heart rate
#Confusion
A patient with a viral illness and severe vomiting has an elevated CO2 level and
pH of 7.53. She is breathing slowly. What condition does she have?
Metabolic alkalosis
The patient's pH and CO2 levels are both elevated (moving in the same direction). This
, In DKA, HCO3/Bicarb is (consumed or excreted) therefore the anion gap
(increases or decreases).
consumed, increases
Bone fracture that occurs when a small piece of bone attached to a tendon or
ligament gets pulled away from the main part of the bone.
Greenstick fracture
Transverse fracture
Avulsion fracture
Comminuted fracture
Avulsion fracture
Greenstick = small, slender crack in bone
Transverse = straight break across bone
Comminuted = break in 3-4 places
What happens in dehydrated patients? _________ levels are high and
_______________ is activated.
ADH, RAAS
